A 60-year-old female with osteoarthritis is prescribed ibuprofen. Ibuprofen works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because ibuprofen inhibits the action of COX enzymes, specifically COX-1 and COX-2, which are responsible for the production of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that play a key role in inflammation and pain. By inhibiting COX enzymes, ibuprofen reduces the production of prostaglandins, thereby decreasing inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect because ibuprofen actually decreases the synthesis of prostaglandins by inhibiting COX enzymes instead of increasing their synthesis. Choice C is incorrect because ibuprofen does not bind to opioid receptors in the brain like opioid medications do. Choice D is incorrect because ibuprofen does not block the reuptake of serotonin, which is a mechanism of action seen in certain antidepressant medications, not NSAIDs like ibuprofen.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Certainly! The correct answer is B: Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioids, including respiratory depression, during an overdose. By competitively binding to opioid receptors, naloxone displaces the opioids and restores normal breathing. Flumazenil (A) is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids. Atropine (C) is a medication used to treat certain types of poisoning and to increase heart rate, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Vitamin K (D) is used to treat bleeding disorders by promoting blood clotting and has no role in opioid overdose reversal.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Sitagliptin is a dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor. 2. DPP-4 enzyme breaks down incretin hormones like GLP-1. 3. By inhibiting DPP-4, sitagliptin increases incretin hormone levels. 4. Incretin hormones stimulate insulin release and inhibit glucagon. 5. Thus, sitagliptin indirectly increases insulin secretion. Summary: A: Incorrect - Sitagliptin indirectly increases insulin secretion. B: Incorrect - Sitagliptin does not affect glucose absorption. D: Incorrect - Sitagliptin does not increase renal glucose excretion.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peripheral edema. Calcium channel blockers cause vasodilation leading to fluid accumulation in the peripheral tissues, resulting in peripheral edema. Dry mouth (A) and coughing (B) are more commonly associated with other medications like antihistamines and ACE inhibitors. Bradycardia (D) is a potential side effect of calcium channel blockers but is less common than peripheral edema.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Beta-adrenergic receptors. Albuterol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that works by binding to beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the airway smooth muscle, leading to bronchodilation. This mechanism helps in treating conditions like asthma and COPD. Choice A (Alpha-adrenergic receptors) is incorrect because albuterol specifically targets beta-adrenergic receptors, not alpha-adrenergic receptors. Choice C (Cholinergic receptors) is incorrect because albuterol does not directly interact with cholinergic receptors. Choice D (Dopaminergic receptors) is incorrect as albuterol does not have a significant affinity for dopaminergic receptors. In conclusion, the correct answer is B because albuterol's mechanism of action involves activating beta-adrenergic receptors to produce bronchodilation.