A 60-year-old female with hyperlipidemia is prescribed ezetimibe. Ezetimibe works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Ezetimibe works by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol in the small intestine. When taken orally, it targets the NPC1L1 protein in the small intestine, preventing cholesterol absorption. This mechanism reduces total cholesterol levels in the blood. - Choice A: Correct. Ezetimibe inhibits cholesterol absorption in the small intestine. - Choice B: Incorrect. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors like statins work in the liver, not in the small intestine. - Choice C: Incorrect. Ezetimibe does not increase HDL cholesterol levels. - Choice D: Incorrect. Blocking bile acid reabsorption is the mechanism of action of bile acid sequestrants, not ezetimibe.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methimazole. Methimazole is commonly prescribed for hyperthyroidism as it inhibits the production of thyroid hormones. It is a first-line treatment for this condition. Levothyroxine (A) is used to treat hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Propranolol (C) is used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism like rapid heart rate but does not treat the underlying cause. Amiodarone (D) can actually induce hyperthyroidism as a side effect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. Tramadol is a centrally acting opioid analgesic that primarily works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. This mechanism helps to increase the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain, leading to pain relief. Choice B is incorrect because tramadol is not a direct opioid agonist. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does not inhibit acetylcholine. Choice D is incorrect as tramadol does not primarily inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is a key feature of asthma pathophysiology. It inhibits the inflammatory response, decreases mucus production, and improves lung function. Choice A is incorrect because blocking leukotriene receptors is the mechanism of action of leukotriene receptor antagonists, not fluticasone. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating beta-2 receptors is the mechanism of action of beta-2 agonists like albuterol, not fluticasone. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells is the mechanism of antihistamines, not corticosteroids like fluticasone.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Celecoxib. Celecoxib is commonly used for osteoarthritis pain as it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps reduce inflammation and pain. It specifically targets the COX-2 enzyme, which is involved in the inflammatory process in osteoarthritis. Methotrexate (A) is used for rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Acetaminophen (B) is a mild pain reliever and is commonly used for osteoarthritis pain, but not as frequently as NSAIDs like celecoxib. Prednisone (D) is a corticosteroid that may be used for short-term relief of osteoarthritis symptoms but is not typically the first-line treatment due to potential side effects.