A 60-year-old client with a palpable mass to the right adnexa and family history of ovarian cancer is seen by the HCP. The nurse anticipates the order for which of the following laboratory results?

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Maternal Disorders Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 60-year-old client with a palpable mass to the right adnexa and family history of ovarian cancer is seen by the HCP. The nurse anticipates the order for which of the following laboratory results?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: CA-125. This tumor marker is used to assess for ovarian cancer in high-risk individuals. The client's age, palpable mass, and family history of ovarian cancer raise suspicion for malignancy. A CBC (choice A) and blood glucose (choice B) are not specific to ovarian cancer evaluation. FSH and LH (choice D) are hormone levels that do not directly assess for ovarian cancer. Therefore, CA-125 is the most appropriate lab test to anticipate in this scenario.

Question 2 of 5

Which is a constellation of physical and psychological symptoms beginning in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle and followed by a symptom-free period?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) occurs in the luteal phase due to hormonal changes. 2. PMS includes physical and psychological symptoms. 3. It is followed by a symptom-free period (during menstruation). 4. Endometriosis is a separate condition involving tissue growth outside the uterus. 5. Abnormal uterine bleeding refers to irregular bleeding patterns. 6. Depression is a mental health condition not specific to the menstrual cycle. Summary: PMS is the correct answer as it aligns with the timing, symptoms, and pattern described in the question. Endometriosis, abnormal uterine bleeding, and depression do not fully match the criteria provided.

Question 3 of 5

A 58-year-old woman tells the nurse that she has started to experience pain during intercourse. The nurse should document that this woman is experiencing which of the following?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspareunia. Dyspareunia refers to pain during or after sexual intercourse. In this case, the woman is experiencing pain during intercourse, which aligns with the definition of dyspareunia. Dyspnea (A) is difficulty breathing, dyspepsia (C) is indigestion, and dysmenorrhea (D) is painful menstruation, none of which are related to pain during intercourse.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is preparing a 51-year-old client for a vaginal examination. The nurse should place the client in which position?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lithotomy position. This position allows for optimal visualization of the vaginal area and easier access for the examination. The client lies on their back with knees flexed and feet in stirrups, providing proper exposure. Prone (A) is face down and not suitable for a vaginal exam. Lateral Sims' (B) is on the side and not ideal for this exam. High Fowler's (D) is sitting upright, which is not appropriate for a vaginal examination.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client who has a suspected cystocele. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Irregular vaginal bleeding. A cystocele is a condition where the bladder protrudes into the vagina. This can cause pressure on surrounding tissues and lead to irregular vaginal bleeding. A, B, and C are incorrect as they are more commonly associated with other conditions such as urinary tract infections (A), pelvic organ prolapse (B), and urinary incontinence (C). Irregular vaginal bleeding is a key sign specific to cystocele due to the physical displacement of organs.

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