ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Review Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 6-year-old male patient presented with microcephaly, microphthalmia, absent thumb, ectopic kidney & recurrent epistaxis. The most informative diagnostic test explaining the underlying etiology is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Chromosomal breakage test. In this case, the patient's presentation of multiple congenital anomalies suggests a chromosomal abnormality, possibly a genetic disorder like Fanconi Anemia. The Chromosomal breakage test is used to diagnose conditions like Fanconi Anemia, which is characterized by sensitivity to DNA damage and chromosomal breakage. This test can identify the specific genetic mutation responsible for the patient's symptoms. Option B) Hemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose hemoglobinopathies like sickle cell disease or thalassemia, not genetic syndromes presenting with multiple congenital anomalies as in this case. Option C) The Schilling test is used to diagnose pernicious anemia or vitamin B12 deficiency, not genetic disorders presenting with congenital anomalies. Option D) Osmotic fragility test is used to diagnose conditions like hereditary spherocytosis, a hemolytic anemia, which does not explain the patient's constellation of symptoms. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind selecting the appropriate diagnostic test based on the patient's presentation is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. This question reinforces the importance of considering a patient's complete clinical picture and choosing diagnostic tests that align with the suspected underlying etiology to provide accurate and timely care.
Question 2 of 5
In hyperkalemia, which of the following treatments antagonizes the direct effect of potassium on the heart?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the management of hyperkalemia is crucial for providing safe and effective care to pediatric patients. In hyperkalemia, the elevated levels of potassium can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, including arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. The correct answer, IV calcium gluconate (Option C), antagonizes the direct effect of potassium on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane potential. Calcium helps counteract the depolarizing effect of potassium, thereby reducing the risk of life-threatening cardiac complications. Option A, cation exchange resin, is used to remove potassium from the body by exchanging it with other cations in the gastrointestinal tract. While this treatment can lower potassium levels, it does not directly counteract the effects of hyperkalemia on the heart like calcium gluconate does. Option B, inhaled Beta 2 agonist, is more commonly used in conditions like asthma to cause bronchodilation. It does not play a significant role in managing hyperkalemia and its cardiac effects. Option D, IV insulin/glucose mixture infusion, works by promoting the movement of potassium from the extracellular space into the cells. While this treatment can help lower potassium levels overall, it does not specifically target the direct cardiac effects of hyperkalemia like calcium gluconate does. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind choosing IV calcium gluconate in hyperkalemia is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide timely and appropriate interventions to prevent cardiac complications in pediatric patients. By grasping the pharmacological actions of different treatments, nurses can make informed clinical decisions to optimize patient outcomes and safety.
Question 3 of 5
Which score is used to evaluate the level of consciousness in children?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) AVPU score. The AVPU score is used to evaluate the level of consciousness in children as well as in adults. AVPU stands for Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive, which are the categories used to assess the patient's responsiveness and consciousness level. This scoring system is simple and easy to remember, making it widely used in clinical settings. Option B) MODS score is incorrect because it stands for Multiple Organ Dysfunction Score, which is used to assess the severity of organ dysfunction in critically ill patients, not for evaluating consciousness in children. Option C) OSCE score is incorrect because OSCE stands for Objective Structured Clinical Examination, which is a method of evaluating clinical skills and competencies of healthcare professionals through simulated patient encounters. It is not used to assess the level of consciousness in children. Option D) PELOD score is incorrect as it stands for Pediatric Logistic Organ Dysfunction score, which is used to assess organ dysfunction specifically in critically ill children, not for evaluating consciousness levels. Understanding how to assess a child's level of consciousness is crucial for pediatric nurses as it helps in monitoring their neurological status, detecting changes in condition, and determining appropriate interventions. The AVPU score provides a quick and effective way to assess consciousness in children, making it an essential tool in pediatric nursing practice.
Question 4 of 5
The ideal rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in infants is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The ideal rate of chest compression during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in infants is 100 per minute (Option C). This rate is recommended by the American Heart Association (AHA) for effective chest compressions in pediatric patients. Option A (150 per minute) is too fast for infants and may not allow for adequate chest recoil between compressions, decreasing the effectiveness of CPR. Option B (125 per minute) is also faster than the recommended rate, which can lead to suboptimal perfusion. Option D (75 per minute) is too slow and may not provide enough circulation to vital organs during CPR. Educationally, understanding the correct rate of chest compressions in infants is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in pediatric settings or emergency departments. Proper CPR technique can make a significant difference in outcomes for pediatric patients in cardiac arrest. It is essential to follow evidence-based guidelines like those provided by the AHA to ensure the best possible care for infants in need of resuscitation.
Question 5 of 5
Advanced life support includes the following Except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding advanced life support is crucial for providing effective care in emergency situations. The correct answer, "D) Treatment of life-threatening arrhythmias," is not typically included in the initial steps of advanced life support for pediatric patients. While treating life-threatening arrhythmias is important, in the context of pediatric resuscitation, priorities lie in ensuring adequate oxygenation, ventilation, and circulation. Option A, "Vascular access," is essential in advanced life support to administer medications and fluids rapidly. Option B, "Fluid administration," is critical for maintaining intravascular volume and perfusion. Option C, "Breathing support," focuses on ensuring proper oxygenation and ventilation, which are fundamental in pediatric resuscitation. Educationally, understanding the sequence and priorities of advanced life support in pediatrics is vital for nurses and healthcare providers. By prioritizing interventions based on the specific needs of pediatric patients, healthcare professionals can improve outcomes in critical situations. Remembering the unique physiological differences and needs of children during resuscitation is key to delivering high-quality care in pediatric nursing practice.