ATI RN
Certified Pediatric Nurse Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 6-year-old male child presented with a cerebellar mass; after undergoing complete surgical resection of the mass, the histology of the mass reveals pilocytic astrocytoma. Of the following, the MOST appropriate next step in the management is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) observation. The reason observation is the most appropriate next step in the management of a 6-year-old male child with a pilocytic astrocytoma after complete surgical resection is because pilocytic astrocytomas are typically low-grade, slow-growing tumors with a favorable prognosis. Radiotherapy (option A) and chemotherapy (option B) are generally not the first-line treatments for pilocytic astrocytomas in pediatric patients due to the potential long-term side effects of these treatments on a developing child's brain. Concomitant chemo-radiotherapy (option D) is also more aggressive than necessary for this type of tumor. Educationally, it is important for healthcare providers to understand the appropriate management of different types of pediatric brain tumors based on their histology, location, and grade. Observation allows for close monitoring of the patient's condition with imaging studies to detect any signs of tumor recurrence or progression while minimizing unnecessary exposure to more aggressive treatments. This approach aligns with the principles of providing patient-centered care and ensuring the best possible outcomes for pediatric patients with brain tumors.
Question 2 of 5
You are evaluating a 6-year-old male child with Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH); the parents state that the most common site of bone involvement is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) skull. In Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH), the most common site of bone involvement in children is the skull. This condition is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of Langerhans cells, leading to the formation of granulomas in various organs, including bones. The skull is a common site due to the high concentration of Langerhans cells in this area. Option B) vertebra is incorrect because while vertebrae can be involved in LCH, they are not the most common site in pediatric cases. Option C) mandible is also incorrect as it is less commonly affected compared to the skull. Option D) pelvis is an uncommon site for bone involvement in LCH in children. In an educational context, understanding the common sites of bone involvement in Langerhans cell histiocytosis is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide comprehensive care to affected children. Recognizing the typical patterns of disease presentation can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management, emphasizing the importance of knowledge in pediatric nursing practice.
Question 3 of 5
Which type of leukemia has been MOST likely developed in a 2-year-old child with Down syndrome in the neonatal period?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) AML M6. The rationale behind this is that children with Down syndrome have a higher risk of developing Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) compared to Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) or Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML). AML M6, also known as acute megakaryoblastic leukemia, is a type of AML that is more commonly associated with Down syndrome. This specific subtype of AML is characterized by the proliferation of abnormal megakaryoblasts in the bone marrow. Option A) ALL is less likely in this case because children with Down syndrome are more predisposed to AML. Option B) CML is a chronic leukemia and is less common in pediatric patients, especially those with Down syndrome. Option C) AML M1 is another subtype of AML but is not as commonly associated with Down syndrome as AML M6. Educationally, understanding the association between Down syndrome and different types of leukemia is crucial for pediatric nurses as it helps in early detection, appropriate management, and providing comprehensive care to these vulnerable patients. This knowledge also highlights the importance of tailored screening protocols and close monitoring for children with Down syndrome to detect any signs of leukemia early on.
Question 4 of 5
A 10-mo-old boy has a left suprarenal mass. Surgery is accomplished with complete removal of the mass as well as the non-adherent lymph nodes; surgical biopsies are taken during surgery. The histology reveals poorly differentiated neuroblastoma with microscopic ipsilateral lymph nodes involvement. The contralateral lymph nodes are negative. Of the following, the BEST therapeutic approach for this infant is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The BEST therapeutic approach for the infant with poorly differentiated neuroblastoma and ipsilateral lymph node involvement is chemotherapy (Option A). Neuroblastoma in infants often presents as a highly malignant tumor, and chemotherapy is the primary treatment modality for disseminated disease. In this case, with microscopic lymph node involvement, systemic treatment like chemotherapy is crucial to target potential metastatic disease. Option B (radiotherapy) is not the best initial therapy for neuroblastoma in infants due to their young age and the potential for long-term side effects on developing tissues. Option C (concomitant chemo-radiotherapy) is not typically used as the primary treatment for neuroblastoma. Option D (chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy) may be considered in cases with high-risk features post-chemotherapy, but initial treatment for an infant with neuroblastoma and lymph node involvement would still be chemotherapy. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind treatment decisions in pediatric oncology is vital for nurses caring for pediatric oncology patients. Chemotherapy is often the cornerstone of treatment for pediatric malignancies, and knowing the appropriate sequencing and combination of therapies is crucial for providing safe and effective care to these vulnerable patients.
Question 5 of 5
Hemangiomas are the most common benign tumors of infancy, occurring more in full-term infants. Of the following, the most common risk factor of development of hemangioma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) female infant. Hemangiomas are more common in females, with a female-to-male ratio of about 3:1. This is due to the role of estrogen in the development of these benign tumors. Estrogen has been suggested to promote the growth of hemangiomas, hence the higher prevalence in female infants. Option A) male infant is incorrect as hemangiomas are more commonly seen in females. Option C) infant of diabetic mother is incorrect as there is no established direct link between maternal diabetes and the development of hemangiomas in infants. Option D) infant delivered by cesarean section is incorrect as the mode of delivery does not impact the development of hemangiomas. In an educational context, understanding the risk factors associated with certain conditions, like hemangiomas in this case, is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric patients. This knowledge enables healthcare professionals to provide better care, anticipate potential issues, and educate parents about the condition. It also highlights the importance of considering gender-specific factors in pediatric healthcare.