ATI RN
Certified Pediatric Nurse Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 6-year-old male child presented with a cerebellar mass; after undergoing complete surgical resection of the mass, the histology of the mass reveals pilocytic astrocytoma. Of the following, the MOST appropriate next step in the management is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer, C) observation, is the most appropriate next step in the management of a 6-year-old male child with a pilocytic astrocytoma following complete surgical resection of the mass. Observation is the preferred approach in this case because pilocytic astrocytomas are generally slow-growing, low-grade tumors with a favorable prognosis in pediatric patients. In many cases, complete surgical resection is curative, and adjuvant therapies like radiotherapy or chemotherapy are usually unnecessary and can lead to potential long-term side effects and complications in young children. Choosing radiotherapy (option A) or chemotherapy (option B) as the next step would be overly aggressive and not in line with the current standard of care for this type of tumor in pediatric patients. These treatments are typically reserved for higher-grade or more aggressive tumors. Concomitant chemo-radiotherapy (option D) is also not indicated in this scenario for the same reasons mentioned above. It would expose the child to unnecessary risks without providing additional benefits in the treatment of a pilocytic astrocytoma post-surgical resection. Educationally, understanding the appropriate management of pediatric brain tumors, including the different types of tumors, their typical behavior, and the rationale behind treatment decisions, is crucial for healthcare professionals working in pediatric oncology. It highlights the importance of tailoring treatment strategies to individual patients based on tumor characteristics, prognosis, and potential risks and benefits of interventions.
Question 2 of 5
You are evaluating a 6-year-old male child with Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH); the parents state that the most common site of bone involvement is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) skull. In Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH), the most common site of bone involvement in children is the skull. This disease is characterized by the abnormal proliferation of Langerhans cells, a type of immune cell. The skull is a common site for LCH due to the rich vascular supply and high concentration of immune cells in this region. Option B) vertebra is incorrect because while spinal involvement can occur in LCH, it is less common than skull involvement in pediatric cases. Option C) mandible is incorrect as mandible involvement is less common than skull involvement. Option D) pelvis is also incorrect as it is not typically the most common site of bone involvement in LCH. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of understanding the common sites of bone involvement in pediatric LCH. By knowing that the skull is the most frequently affected bone, healthcare providers can appropriately monitor and manage these patients' care, leading to better outcomes. Understanding disease patterns and common presentations is crucial for pediatric nurses caring for children with complex conditions like LCH.
Question 3 of 5
Which type of leukemia has been MOST likely developed in a 2-year-old child with Down syndrome in the neonatal period?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) AML M6. In the context of a 2-year-old child with Down syndrome in the neonatal period, the most likely type of leukemia to develop would be Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) M6. This is due to the increased risk of leukemia in children with Down syndrome, with AML being more common than Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) in this population. Option A) ALL is less likely in this scenario as AML is more common in children with Down syndrome. Option B) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is a rare diagnosis in children, especially in the neonatal period. Option C) AML M1 is less likely as AML M6 is more common in children with Down syndrome and presents with a distinct clinical and morphological profile. Educationally, this question highlights the association between Down syndrome and leukemia, emphasizing the importance of recognizing specific leukemia subtypes in pediatric patients with genetic conditions. Understanding these associations can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management of pediatric patients with complex medical conditions.
Question 4 of 5
A 10-mo-old boy has a left suprarenal mass. Surgery is accomplished with complete removal of the mass as well as the non-adherent lymph nodes; surgical biopsies are taken during surgery. The histology reveals poorly differentiated neuroblastoma with microscopic ipsilateral lymph nodes involvement. The contralateral lymph nodes are negative. Of the following, the BEST therapeutic approach for this infant is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best therapeutic approach for the 10-month-old boy with poorly differentiated neuroblastoma and ipsilateral lymph node involvement is chemotherapy (Option A). Chemotherapy is the preferred initial treatment for neuroblastoma in infants due to their age and the aggressive nature of the cancer. It helps to shrink the tumor, control its spread, and target any cancer cells that may have spread beyond the primary tumor site. In this case, the presence of lymph node involvement indicates a need for systemic treatment like chemotherapy to target any potential metastases. Radiotherapy (Option B) is generally not the first-line treatment for neuroblastoma in infants due to the potential long-term side effects on developing tissues and organs. Concomitant chemo-radiotherapy (Option C) may be too aggressive for an infant and can lead to severe toxicities. Chemotherapy followed by radiotherapy (Option D) is also not the best approach initially, as chemotherapy alone is often effective in treating neuroblastoma in infants. In an educational context, it is crucial to understand the rationale behind treatment choices in pediatric oncology. Considering the age, stage, and specific characteristics of the tumor are essential factors in determining the most appropriate therapy to achieve the best outcomes while minimizing potential long-term side effects.
Question 5 of 5
Hemangiomas are the most common benign tumors of infancy, occurring more in full-term infants. Of the following, the most common risk factor of development of hemangioma is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) female infant. Hemangiomas are more common in females, with a female-to-male ratio of 3:1. This is due to the influence of estrogen on the development of these vascular tumors. Estrogen has been found to stimulate the growth of hemangiomas, explaining why they are more prevalent in female infants. Option A) male infant is incorrect because, as mentioned earlier, hemangiomas are more commonly seen in female infants. Option C) infant of diabetic mother is incorrect as there is no direct association between maternal diabetes and the development of hemangiomas in infants. Option D) infant delivered by cesarean section is also incorrect as the mode of delivery does not play a significant role in the development of hemangiomas. Educationally, understanding the risk factors associated with hemangiomas is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric patients. This knowledge helps in early identification, appropriate management, and patient education. By knowing that female infants are more predisposed to hemangiomas, healthcare providers can be more vigilant in monitoring these patients for the development of such benign tumors.