ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 11 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 6-year-old child with suspected active tuberculosis process has undergone diagnostic Mantoux test. What immunobiological preparation was injected?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin to check for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals exposed to TB. B: BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used for TB prevention, not for diagnostic testing. C: DTP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not TB. D: Tularinum is not a standard immunobiological preparation used for TB testing. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the Mantoux test.
Question 2 of 9
What are the two main targets currently used in anti-HIV therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reverse transcriptase and protease. Reverse transcriptase converts viral RNA into DNA, a crucial step in viral replication. Protease is responsible for cleaving viral polyproteins into functional proteins. Targeting both enzymes disrupts viral replication. Choice A is incorrect as integrase is not a main target in current therapy. Choice C is incorrect because protease is targeted along with reverse transcriptase, not integrase. Choice D is incorrect as targeting viral glycoproteins is not a main strategy in anti-HIV therapy.
Question 3 of 9
What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.
Question 4 of 9
Specify the microbiological characteristic of the air:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Contaminated. The air is never completely free of microorganisms, so it is considered contaminated. Microorganisms are ubiquitous in the environment. Permissible limits (B) imply a specific standard, which is not relevant to the general microbiological characteristic of air. Almost pure (C) and pure (D) are not accurate as air always contains some level of microorganisms.
Question 5 of 9
Cytoplasmic membrane of the prokaryotes consists of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. The cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes consists of phospholipids which form a lipid bilayer, providing structure and selective permeability. Proteins are embedded in this membrane, serving various functions like transport and signaling. Carbohydrates may also be present on the surface for cell recognition. Therefore, all three components (phospholipids, proteins, and carbohydrates) are essential parts of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane. Option A, B, and C individually do not fully encapsulate the complexity and composition of the prokaryotic cytoplasmic membrane.
Question 6 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria commonly found in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of surgical site infections. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and bloodstream infections. Therefore, all three bacteria are frequently implicated in hospital-acquired infections due to their prevalence and ability to cause different types of infections in healthcare settings. Thus, the correct answer is D, as all of the listed bacteria are commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 7 of 9
Which is the main mechanism of passing the infection with Listeria monocytogenes from man to man:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, transplacental mechanism. Listeria monocytogenes can cross the placenta, infecting the fetus during pregnancy. This mechanism allows the bacteria to be transmitted from mother to baby in utero. Alimentary mechanism (A) involves ingestion of contaminated food, not direct transfer between individuals. Transmission (B) is a broad term that doesn't specify the specific route of Listeria transmission. Physical contact (D) is not a common mode of Listeria transmission compared to transplacental transmission in the case of maternal-fetal infection.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following bacteria is associated with the disease known as whooping cough?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 1. Bordetella pertussis causes whooping cough. 2. It secretes toxins that damage the respiratory tract. 3. Symptoms include severe coughing fits and the characteristic "whoop" sound. 4. Clostridium tetani causes tetanus, not whooping cough. 5. Haemophilus influenzae causes various infections, not whooping cough. 6. Staphylococcus aureus causes skin infections, not whooping cough.
Question 9 of 9
During examination of a 3-month old infant a pediatrician revealed that the baby's oral mucosa and tongue were covered with a thick white deposit. In the material taken from the affected site a bacteriologist revealed the presence of yeast fungi giving the reasons for suspecting a fungal infection which occurs most often in children of this age, namely:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.