A 6-year-old child with suspected active tuberculosis process has undergone diagnostic Mantoux test. What immunobiological preparation was injected?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tuberculin. The Mantoux test involves injecting tuberculin, a protein derivative of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, under the skin to check for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction in individuals exposed to TB. B: BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine used for TB prevention, not for diagnostic testing. C: DTP vaccine is for diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, not TB. D: Tularinum is not a standard immunobiological preparation used for TB testing. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the Mantoux test.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Legionella pneumophila is a Gram-negative coccobacillus. It is not a coccus (round shape), spiral bacterium, or Gram-positive coccobacillus. The correct answer is C because Legionella pneumophila has a characteristic coccobacillary shape and stains Gram-negative due to its cell wall composition. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the morphology or staining characteristics of Legionella pneumophila.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Nystatin) is the correct answer: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida infections. 2. Candida is a type of fungus, not a bacteria targeted by penicillins (choice A) or cephalosporins (choice B). 3. Nystatin works by disrupting the fungal cell membrane, leading to its death. 4. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Nystatin is a suitable treatment option for Candida infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This is supported by the characteristics of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria, as it is a common skin commensal that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (choice D) is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasma. Toxoplasma gondii causes Toxoplasmosis, a protozoan disease that can affect the brain and lead to vision loss. The halfmoon-shaped unicellular organisms with pointed ends described in the blood analysis are characteristic of Toxoplasma parasites. Toxoplasma infection commonly occurs through ingestion of contaminated food or water, or contact with infected cat feces. Leishmania causes Leishmaniasis, Lamblia causes Giardiasis, Amoeba causes Amebiasis, and Trichomonad causes Trichomoniasis, none of which match the symptoms and blood analysis findings described in the question.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Agglutination reaction. This test is commonly used to detect specific antibodies or antigens. In this case, it can be used to detect plague antigens in the rat tissues or antibodies in the villagers. This test is rapid, sensitive, and can help establish the presence of the causative agent quickly. A: Ring precipitation reaction is not typically used for diagnosing plague and is more commonly used in other types of infections. C: Passive agglutination reaction is not specific for plague and is more commonly used for detecting specific antibodies in diseases like syphilis. D: Neutralization reaction is not typically used for diagnosing plague and is more commonly used to determine the presence of neutralizing antibodies in viral infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood serum. In suspected cases of brucellosis, blood serum is typically analyzed in a common microbiological laboratory. This is because the bacteria causing brucellosis, Brucella species, can be detected through serological tests in the blood serum. The presence of specific antibodies against Brucella in the serum confirms the diagnosis. Spinal fluid (choice B) would be analyzed in cases of suspected central nervous system infections, which are not typical for brucellosis. Vomit mass (choice C) is not a common sample for microbiological analysis in cases of brucellosis. Urine (choice D) is not the preferred sample for detecting Brucella antibodies; blood serum is the primary choice for serological testing.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of pneumonia and is characterized by Gram-positive diplococci with a capsule. The presence of a capsule helps the bacterium evade the immune system and contributes to its virulence. Klebsiella pneumoniae (B) is a Gram-negative bacterium and does not typically have a capsule. Neisseria meningitidis (C) is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is associated with meningitis, not pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus (D) is a Gram-positive bacterium, but it does not typically present as diplococci with a capsule in a sputum smear from a pneumonia patient.