ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 6-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic for the assessment of redness and discharge from the eye and is diagnosed with viral conjunctivitis. What is the most important information to discuss with the parents and child?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Handwashing is crucial in preventing the spread of viral conjunctivitis, which is highly contagious. Step 2: Children often touch their eyes and then surfaces, aiding in disease transmission. Step 3: Educating parents and the child on proper hand hygiene can help contain the infection. Step 4: Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, so compliance is not necessary. Step 5: Complications like meningitis and septicemia are extremely rare with viral conjunctivitis. Step 6: Surgery is not indicated for viral conjunctivitis, as it is a self-limiting condition.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.
Question 3 of 9
As the American population ages, nurses expect see more patients admitted to long-term care facilities in need of palliative care. Regulations now in place that govern how the care in these facilities is both organized and reimbursed emphasize what aspect of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Incentives to palliative care. Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses by addressing their physical, emotional, and spiritual needs. As the American population ages, the emphasis on palliative care in long-term care facilities is crucial. Regulations emphasizing incentives for palliative care ensure that patients receive appropriate symptom management, comfort care, and support to enhance their overall well-being. Choice A: Ongoing acute care is not the correct answer because palliative care is different from acute care, which focuses on treating the underlying medical condition. Choice B: Restorative measures are not the correct answer as palliative care aims to improve quality of life rather than focusing on restoring physical function. Choice C: Mobility and socialization are important aspects of care in long-term facilities, but palliative care goes beyond these aspects to provide holistic support for patients facing serious illnesses.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is using the explanatory model to determinethe etiology of an illness. Which questions should the nurse ask? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: What do you call your problem? In the explanatory model, this question helps the nurse understand the patient's perspective and cultural beliefs about their illness. By asking how the patient labels their illness, the nurse gains insight into the patient's understanding of the illness, which can influence their treatment adherence and outcomes. The other options are incorrect because: A: How should your sickness be treated? - This question focuses on treatment preferences rather than understanding the patient's beliefs. C: How does this illness work inside your body? - This question is more aligned with the biomedical model, seeking physiological explanations rather than patient perspectives. D: What do you fear most about your sickness? - While important for assessing emotional aspects, this question does not directly address the patient's explanatory model.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is to receive multiple medications via the nasogastric tube. The nurse is concerned that the tube may become clogged. Which action isbestfor the nurseto take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (D): Checking with the pharmacy for availability of liquid forms of medications is the best action because it reduces the risk of clogging the nasogastric tube. Liquid medications are less likely to cause blockages compared to nonliquid medications. Additionally, liquid forms are easier to administer through the tube. By using liquid medications, the nurse can ensure that the medications flow smoothly through the tube without causing any obstructions. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Instilling nonliquid medications without diluting can increase the risk of tube clogging. B: Irrigating the tube with water after all medications are given may not prevent clogging effectively and could introduce unnecessary moisture into the tube. C: Mixing all medications together can lead to potential drug interactions and may not address the issue of tube clogging effectively.
Question 6 of 9
Initiate feeding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (2, 4, 1, 3, 5) because it follows the correct sequential order for initiating feeding. First, you need to prepare the food (2), then set up the feeding area (4), followed by inviting the person to eat (1), serving the food (3), and finally allowing them to eat (5). The other choices do not adhere to the logical sequence required for initiating feeding. Choice A and D have incorrect sequences of steps, while Choice C has steps 1 and 4 switched, which disrupts the proper order of initiating feeding.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is providing health education to a patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse teaches the patient that this disease has a familial tendency. The nurse should encourage the patients immediate family members to undergo clinical examinations how often?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: At least once every 2 years. Glaucoma has a familial tendency, meaning it can run in families. Regular eye exams are crucial for early detection and treatment. Having family members undergo clinical examinations every 2 years allows for timely identification of any potential signs of glaucoma. Monthly exams (A) would be too frequent and unnecessary. Exams every 5 years (C) or 10 years (D) are too infrequent and may miss early signs of the disease. Regular biennial exams strike a balance between early detection and practicality.
Question 9 of 9
A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: According to current guidelines, breast conservation combined with radiation is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy. 1. Breast conservation surgery followed by radiation is a standard treatment option for early-stage breast cancer. 2. Studies have shown that breast conservation surgery combined with radiation therapy is equally effective in terms of long-term survival rates compared to mastectomy. 3. Current guidelines recommend considering breast conservation surgery as a viable option for patients with early-stage breast cancer. 4. Modified radical mastectomy is not necessarily needed to ensure complete removal of cancer, as breast conservation surgery followed by radiation can achieve the same goal. 5. Therefore, the nurse should reassure the patient's husband that the recommended treatment plan is based on current guidelines and is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy.