ATI RN
Mastering Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 6-year-old child has duodenal ulcer. What antibacterial drug should be co-administered together with metronidazole and De-Nol in order to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is commonly used in combination therapy with metronidazole and bismuth compounds like De-Nol to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection in children. Amoxicillin targets the bacterial cell wall synthesis, working synergistically with metronidazole to effectively eradicate the infection. Tetracycline (choice B) is not recommended in children under 8 years old due to potential tooth discoloration. Oleandomycin (choice C) is not commonly used for H. pylori infection. Biseptol (choice D) is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, not typically used for H. pylori eradication.
Question 2 of 9
Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns of length have been revealed in a man's feces. The body is covered with cilias and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide round shaped back end. On the forward end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nucleuses and two short vacuoles. For whom are the described attributes typical?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The described attributes match those of Balantidium. The presence of cilia, oval shape with a narrowed front and wide back end, visible mouth, two nucleuses, and short vacuoles are all characteristic features of Balantidium. Balantidium is a ciliated protozoan parasite commonly found in the human intestine. The other choices can be eliminated based on specific characteristics: Lamblia lacks cilia and has a different shape, Dysenteric amoeba typically has a single nucleus, and Trichomonas does not have cilia or multiple nuclei. Therefore, based on the specific attributes described, the correct answer is Balantidium (Choice A).
Question 3 of 9
A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results: RBC- 3x1012/l, b- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils - 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient
Question 4 of 9
Bypass fume hoods belong to the group of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: general-purpose hoods. Bypass fume hoods are designed to handle a wide range of chemical fumes and vapors, making them suitable for various types of experiments and processes. They are not specifically designed for radioisotopes (B), perchloric acid (C), or biological materials (D). Therefore, A is the correct choice for bypass fume hoods.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is a general-purpose medium?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tryptic soy agar is a general-purpose medium suitable for cultivating a wide range of microorganisms. It provides essential nutrients for growth without inhibiting specific types of bacteria. Blood agar (B), Mannitol salt agar (C), and MacConkey agar (D) are selective or differential media designed to promote the growth of specific types of bacteria or differentiate between different bacterial species. Therefore, they are not considered general-purpose mediums.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS), which are important in pathogenesis and immune response. This feature is unique to Gram-negative bacteria, distinguishing them from Gram-positive bacteria (choice A). Teichoic acids (choice C) are found in the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria, not Gram-negative. The statement in choice D, absence of a cell wall, is incorrect as all bacteria have a cell wall, although the composition may vary between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.
Question 7 of 9
After the second abortion a 23 year old woman has been diagnosed with toxoplasmosis. Which drug should be used for toxoplasmosis treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Co-trimoxazole. This drug combination is the first-line treatment for toxoplasmosis due to its efficacy against Toxoplasma gondii. Co-trimoxazole consists of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, which work synergistically to inhibit bacterial and protozoal folate synthesis, effectively treating toxoplasmosis. B: Itraconazole is an antifungal medication and not effective against toxoplasmosis. C: Mebendazole is an anthelmintic drug used for treating parasitic worm infections, not toxoplasmosis. D: Azidothimidine, also known as AZT, is used for treating HIV, not toxoplasmosis.
Question 8 of 9
The Gram stain is used to differentiate bacteria based on:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Gram stain differentiates bacteria based on cell wall structure. It classifies bacteria into Gram-positive (purple) and Gram-negative (pink) based on the presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. This method helps in identifying the bacterial species and determining appropriate treatment. Option A (Cell shape) is incorrect because the Gram stain focuses on cell wall composition, not cell shape. Option C (Flagella composition) is incorrect as the Gram stain does not assess flagella. Option D (Nutrient requirements) is incorrect as it does not relate to the purpose of the Gram stain.
Question 9 of 9
The white pulp and red pulp are part of which immune organ:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spleen. The white pulp of the spleen contains lymphocytes that help in immune responses. The red pulp filters blood and removes old or damaged red blood cells. The thymus (A) is responsible for T cell maturation, lymph nodes (B) filter lymph, and lymphoid tissue (D) includes various lymphoid organs but does not specifically refer to the spleen's distinct white and red pulp structure. Thus, the spleen is the only organ among the choices that has both white and red pulp components essential for immune functions.