A 6-year-old child has duodenal ulcer. What antibacterial drug should be co-administered together with metronidazole and De-Nol in order to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is commonly used in combination therapy with metronidazole and bismuth compounds like De-Nol to eradicate Helicobacter pylori infection in children. Amoxicillin targets the bacterial cell wall synthesis, working synergistically with metronidazole to effectively eradicate the infection. Tetracycline (choice B) is not recommended in children under 8 years old due to potential tooth discoloration. Oleandomycin (choice C) is not commonly used for H. pylori infection. Biseptol (choice D) is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, not typically used for H. pylori eradication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anti-measles IgM. During acute measles infection, the body produces IgM antibodies specific to the measles virus. This indicates a recent or current infection. A: Anti-mumps IgM and B: Anti-rubella IgM are specific to mumps and rubella viruses, respectively, not measles. D: Anti-CMV IgM is specific to cytomegalovirus, not measles. In summary, choice C is correct because Anti-measles IgM is the specific antibody indicating acute measles infection, while the other choices are antibodies related to different viruses.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Homemade canned meat. Botulism is caused by the Clostridium botulinum bacteria, which thrives in low-oxygen environments like improperly canned food. Homemade canned meat poses a higher risk of contamination as it may not have been processed correctly, allowing the bacteria to grow and produce toxins. Custard pastry, sour cream, and strawberries are less likely to cause botulism as they are not typically associated with the bacteria unless improperly handled or stored. Homemade canned meat is the most probable cause based on the characteristic symptoms of botulism and the conditions that favor the growth of Clostridium botulinum in canned food.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peritoneum. Normal flora refers to the microorganisms that naturally inhabit the human body without causing harm. The peritoneum is a sterile area, so it does not harbor normal flora. The urethra, vagina, and mouth all have normal flora due to their moist and warm environments, which provide an ideal habitat for microorganisms to thrive. The peritoneum, being a sterile cavity that houses organs like the stomach and intestines, does not have a natural microbial population like the other areas mentioned. Therefore, it does not contain normal flora.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: epidermolytic toxin. This toxin specifically targets the epidermis, leading to exfoliation seen in scalded skin syndrome (SSS). Hemolysis (A) refers to the destruction of red blood cells, not relevant to SSS. Enterotoxins (B) cause food poisoning, not SSS. Leucocidins (C) target white blood cells, not pertinent to SSS. Therefore, the epidermolytic toxin (D) is the correct choice for causing SSS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. The presence of Gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase-positive and coagulase-negative points towards coagulase-negative staphylococci like Staphylococcus epidermidis. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, the most likely causative agent in this scenario is Staphylococcus epidermidis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Rotaviruses are not a major cause of meningitis; they primarily cause gastroenteritis. This is because Rotaviruses infect the gastrointestinal tract, not the central nervous system. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific antiviral therapy for Rotaviruses. Choice B is correct as Rotaviruses are indeed widespread globally. Choice D is correct as Rotaviruses are shed in large amounts in feces, contributing to their ability to spread easily.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cell-wall regrowth. This is not a bacterial antibiotic resistance mechanism because antibiotics target specific components in bacteria, such as cell wall synthesis, making regrowth impossible in the presence of antibiotics. Reduced permeability (A) decreases antibiotic entry, Over-expression of target (C) reduces antibiotic effectiveness, and Efflux pump (D) actively removes antibiotics from the cell, all contributing to antibiotic resistance. In summary, cell-wall regrowth is not a mechanism of antibiotic resistance, unlike the other choices that actively promote bacterial survival against antibiotics.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) and matches the description given in the question. Proteus mirabilis is a gram-negative rod-like bacterium that forms greenish mucoid colonies with a specific smell due to its production of urease enzyme. This enzyme leads to the formation of struvite crystals, which can cause painful and frequent urination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (A) is not typically associated with UTIs. E.coli (C) is the most common cause of UTIs but does not match the specific description provided. Str.pyogenes (D) is a gram-positive bacterium and is not typically associated with UTIs.