A 6-year-old child has been diagnosed with coarctation of the aorta. Lately, he has been complaining when he comes in from recess. The health nurse should question the child about which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weakness and pain in legs. In a child with coarctation of the aorta, there is a narrowing of the aorta which can lead to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This can result in symptoms such as weakness and pain in the legs, especially during physical activity like recess. By questioning the child about these symptoms, the nurse can assess the severity of the condition and determine the need for further evaluation or intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blurred vision, increased respiratory rate, and bruises on shins are not typically associated with coarctation of the aorta. These symptoms may indicate other health issues but are not directly related to the condition in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transcutaneous pacer. In an emergency, a transcutaneous pacer is used as it can be quickly attached by the critical care nurse externally to provide temporary pacing. Other options are not typically used in emergencies: B) Epicardial pacer requires surgical placement, C) Transvenous pacer is inserted via a vein and takes longer to set up, and D) Permanent pacer is surgically implanted for long-term pacing needs. Therefore, A is the most suitable choice for immediate intervention in critical situations.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. By checking the digoxin level, the nurse can ensure the patient's safety and prevent potential complications. Option A is incorrect as monitoring is necessary regardless of the level. Option B is incorrect as administering potassium without assessing the digoxin level can be dangerous. Option D is incorrect as stopping digoxin abruptly can lead to adverse effects. In summary, option C is the most appropriate intervention to ensure patient safety and prevent complications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperglycemia. Beta agonists can stimulate the release of glucose from the liver, leading to increased blood sugar levels. The nurse should monitor for signs of hyperglycemia such as increased thirst, frequent urination, and fatigue. Incorrect answers: A: Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of beta agonists as they typically raise blood sugar levels. C: Muscle weakness is not directly associated with beta agonist use. D: Paresthesias (tingling or numbness) are not typically linked to beta agonist administration.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium channel blocker. Class II anti-arrhythmic agents primarily target beta blockers. These drugs work by blocking sodium channels, which helps in controlling irregular heart rhythms. Calcium channel blockers (choice A) and ACE inhibitors (choice D) do not belong to Class II anti-arrhythmic agents. Beta blockers (choice B) are Class II anti-arrhythmic agents, but the question asks for the specific drug class within Class II, which is sodium channel blockers.