A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?

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Advanced Pharmacology Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 2 of 5

An adolescent client will receive Depo-Provera as a method of birth control. She asks the nurse how long the drug will be effective. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Depo-Provera, a progestin injection, provides contraception by inhibiting ovulation for 3 months , requiring re-administration every 12 weeks. This duration is based on its pharmacokinetic profile, ensuring reliable hormone levels. Two months underestimates, risking unprotected gaps. Six months or 1 year overestimate, reducing efficacy mid-cycle. The nurse's accurate response (D) educates the client on timing, ensuring adherence and preventing unintended pregnancy, aligning with clinical standards for injectable contraceptives.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse manages care for several clients receiving hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What will the priority assessment by the nurse include as related to side effects?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse administers IV push hydralazine (Apresoline) to a client with severe hypertension. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, lowers blood pressure but triggers reflex tachycardia. A heart rate of 110 bpm indicates significant compensation, risking ischemia or strain, requiring immediate action (e.g., slowing infusion, notifying physician). BP of 140/90 is improved, not critical. Headache and flushing are expected from vasodilation, less urgent. Tachycardia's potential to destabilize circulation, especially in severe hypertension, aligns with hydralazine's pharmacology'arteriolar relaxation prompts sympathetic response. This finding demands swift intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse, making B the priority over manageable side effects.

Question 5 of 5

The following are anticoagulants that do not require monitoring of INR:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

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