ATI RN
Advanced Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 59-year-old man with a history of depression cuts his wrists in a suicide attempt. He is brought to the local emergency department for care. He has bilateral medial 3-cm lacerations through the skin and subcutaneous tissues that will require sutures. A review of his prior medical history indicates an allergy to 2% lidocaine. The most likely explanation for this is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Allergic. Lidocaine is a local anesthetic commonly used for procedures like suturing. Allergic reactions to lidocaine can occur, presenting as itching, redness, swelling, or in severe cases, anaphylaxis. The patient's history of depression and suicide attempt is not directly related to the lidocaine allergy. Option B) Mast cell mediated is incorrect because while mast cells can be involved in allergic reactions, the primary cause in this case is the patient's allergy to lidocaine, not mast cell activation per se. Option C) Neurogenic is incorrect as it refers to conditions related to nerve dysfunction or injury, not an allergic reaction to lidocaine. Option D) Psychogenic is incorrect as it pertains to psychological factors causing physical symptoms, which is not the case with the lidocaine allergy. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of assessing patients for allergies prior to administering medications and the potential serious consequences of allergic reactions. It also underscores the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in obtaining thorough medical histories to ensure patient safety during procedures.
Question 2 of 5
An adolescent client will receive Depo-Provera as a method of birth control. She asks the nurse how long the drug will be effective. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Depo-Provera, a progestin injection, provides contraception by inhibiting ovulation for 3 months , requiring re-administration every 12 weeks. This duration is based on its pharmacokinetic profile, ensuring reliable hormone levels. Two months underestimates, risking unprotected gaps. Six months or 1 year overestimate, reducing efficacy mid-cycle. The nurse's accurate response (D) educates the client on timing, ensuring adherence and preventing unintended pregnancy, aligning with clinical standards for injectable contraceptives.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse manages care for several clients receiving hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What will the priority assessment by the nurse include as related to side effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of managing clients receiving hormone replacement therapy (HRT), the priority assessment by the nurse should focus on potential side effects related to thromboembolic events, such as pain in the calf. Pain in the calf can be indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious side effect associated with HRT that requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications like pulmonary embolism. Option A is the correct answer because it directly relates to a potentially life-threatening side effect of HRT that requires urgent intervention. Pain in the calf should never be ignored in clients on HRT. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly pertain to the most critical side effect associated with HRT. Decreased libido, low-back pain, and chronic fatigue are commonly reported side effects of hormone therapy but are not typically considered urgent or life-threatening compared to the risk of thromboembolic events. In an educational context, understanding the priority assessments for clients on hormone replacement therapy is crucial for nurses to provide safe and effective care. Recognizing and responding promptly to signs of potential complications like DVT can significantly impact patient outcomes and prevent serious consequences. Nurses should be vigilant in monitoring for these specific side effects to ensure early detection and appropriate management.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse administers IV push hydralazine (Apresoline) to a client with severe hypertension. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hydralazine, a vasodilator, lowers blood pressure but triggers reflex tachycardia. A heart rate of 110 bpm indicates significant compensation, risking ischemia or strain, requiring immediate action (e.g., slowing infusion, notifying physician). BP of 140/90 is improved, not critical. Headache and flushing are expected from vasodilation, less urgent. Tachycardia's potential to destabilize circulation, especially in severe hypertension, aligns with hydralazine's pharmacology'arteriolar relaxation prompts sympathetic response. This finding demands swift intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse, making B the priority over manageable side effects.
Question 5 of 5
The following are anticoagulants that do not require monitoring of INR:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.