ATI RN
Principles of Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 59-year-old Japanese man with atrial fibrillation presented to his physician complaining of red urine. The man had been receiving a standard dose of warfarin, which is an anticoagulant drug biotransformed by CYP2C9 isozyme. Which of the following was the most likely cause of the patient's disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely cause of the patient's disorder is a genetic polymorphism of CYP2C9. Genetic variations in the CYP2C9 gene can affect the metabolism of warfarin, leading to either increased or decreased drug levels in the body. In this case, the patient's red urine could be a result of altered metabolism of warfarin due to genetic polymorphism in the CYP2C9 isozyme, which is responsible for metabolizing warfarin. This can result in either increased or decreased levels of the active form of warfarin in the body, potentially leading to adverse effects like red urine.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following terms best defines this tolerance pattern?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 45-year-old woman recently diagnosed with lupus erythematosus started a treatment with a synthetic steroid. Which of the following is the most likely time lapse expected between receptor activation and therapeutic response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely time lapse expected between receptor activation and therapeutic response in this scenario would be one or two hours. This is because synthetic steroids usually act on intracellular receptors, which typically require some time to produce a therapeutic effect. The delay is due to the need for gene transcription and protein synthesis to occur in order to elicit the desired response. Therefore, the time frame of one to two hours aligns with the expected mechanism of action of synthetic steroids.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following types of drug reaction was most likely experienced by the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Type I allergic reaction. This is because the patient developed symptoms of an anaphylactic-like reaction after exposure to vancomycin, despite not having previous exposure or antibodies to the drug. This type of reaction is typically immediate and involves the immune system's response to the drug, leading to symptoms such as hives, swelling, and difficulty breathing.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following conditions most likely delayed the oral absorption of acetaminophen in the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.