ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 58-year-old woman who is obese comes to the emergency department with diaphoresis and crushing chest pain that radiates to her left arm. The physician orders an ECG and checks her cardiac enzymes to confirm his suspicion of myocardial infarction. Because of the quick response and intervention, she survives and is ultimately discharged with a prescription for low-dose daily aspirin to inhibit platelet aggregation. Which of the following enzymes is the intended target of aspirin in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirin post-MI inhibits platelet aggregation via cyclooxygenase (COX) . It blocks thromboxane A2 synthesis, reducing clotting. Lipoxygenase , phospholipase A2 , prostacyclin synthase , and thromboxane synthase (E) aren't primary targets. COX inhibition prevents secondary events.
Question 2 of 5
What is one of the therapeutic uses of ACE inhibitors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure). They work by inhibiting the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by narrowing blood vessels. By blocking this enzyme, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. This makes ACE inhibitors an effective therapeutic option for managing hypertension and its associated complications.
Question 3 of 5
Epinephrine is administered to a female patient. The nurse should expect this agent to rapidly affect:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is a potent agonist of adrenergic receptors, which are part of the sympathetic nervous system. It rapidly affects alpha and beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, vasoconstriction, and bronchodilation. Muscarinic and cholinergic receptors are part of the parasympathetic nervous system and are not directly activated by epinephrine. Nicotinic receptors are found in the neuromuscular junction and autonomic ganglia but are not the primary target of epinephrine. The rapid action of epinephrine makes it a critical drug in emergencies such as anaphylaxis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) IV. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for most closely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, treats severe infections but is ototoxic, risking hearing loss via cochlear damage, a serious, potentially irreversible effect. The nurse must monitor closely (e.g., assess for tinnitus, vertigo) to catch it early, prompting discontinuation. Rash suggests allergy but is less frequent and manageable. Nausea and diarrhea occur but are transient and less critical than auditory damage. Gentamicin's narrow therapeutic index and accumulation in inner ear tissues make ototoxicity the priority, especially with IV dosing where levels peak. Early detection prevents permanent disability, aligning with vigilant nursing care for nephrotoxic and ototoxic drugs, making C the adverse effect to watch most closely.
Question 5 of 5
When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of ______
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When administering Morphine, the typical starting dose for an adult is 2.5 mg to 10 mg every 3 to 4 hours as needed for pain. The dose should be adjusted according to the severity of the pain, the patient's response, and any side effects. Therefore, the correct choice is A, 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours, as it falls within the recommended starting dose range for Morphine administration.