ATI RN
Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest. The lesion appears to be "stuck on" and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface. It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of an oval, brown, slightly elevated lesion with a flat surface and rough, wartlike texture on palpation is characteristic of a seborrheic keratosis. Seborrheic keratoses are common benign skin growths that typically occur in older adults. They can vary in color, ranging from tan to dark brown, and often have a waxy or stuck-on appearance. The lesion described does not fit the typical characteristics of actinic keratosis, basal cell carcinoma, or squamous cell carcinoma.
Question 2 of 9
Mr. Curtiss has a history of obesity, diabetes, osteoarthritis of the knees, HTN, and obstructive sleep apnea. His BMI is 43 and he has been discouraged by his difficulty in losing weight. He is also discouraged that his goal weight is 158 pounds away. What would you tell him?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Weight loss can have a significant impact on the health problems associated with obesity. Even a modest weight loss of around 10% can lead to noticeable improvements in conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, osteoarthritis, and obstructive sleep apnea. Encouraging Mr. Curtiss to focus on achieving a meaningful but achievable goal, such as a 10% weight loss, can help him experience positive changes in his health and overall wellbeing, even if his ultimate goal weight seems far away. This approach can also help to boost his motivation and confidence in his ability to make progress towards better health.
Question 3 of 9
Mrs. H. comes to your clinic, wanting antibiotics for a sinus infection. When you enter the room, she appears to be very angry. She has a raised tone of voice and states that she has been waiting for the past hour and has to get back to work. She states that she is unimpressed by the reception staff, the nurse, and the clinic in general and wants to know why the office wouldn't call in an antibiotic for her. Which of the following techniques is not useful in helping to calm this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging and taking responsibility for any part you may have played in provoking the patient's anger is important in effectively addressing the situation. By avoiding admission of your lateness, you may come across as dismissive of the patient's feelings and not addressing the issue at hand. It is essential to validate the patient's feelings and work towards finding a solution rather than avoiding the issue.
Question 4 of 9
Linda is a 29-year-old who had excruciating pain which started under her lower ribs on the right side. The pain eventually moved to her lateral abdomen and then into her right lower quadrant. Which is most likely, given this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The progression of excruciating pain starting under the lower ribs on the right side, then moving to the lateral abdomen, and finally settling in the right lower quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, a small tube-like structure attached to the cecum (beginning of the large intestine). The pain typically starts around the umbilicus and then migrates to the right lower quadrant, where the appendix is located. Other symptoms that may accompany appendicitis include fever, nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, and tenderness at McBurney's point (a specific area in the abdomen). It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to avoid complications such as perforation and peritonitis.
Question 5 of 9
A 55-year-old married homemaker comes to your clinic, complaining of 6 months of vaginal itching and discomfort with intercourse. She has not had a discharge and has had no pain with urination. She has not had a period in over 2 years. She has no other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of removal of her gallbladder. She denies use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs. Her mother has breast cancer, and her father has coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer's disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. There is no lymphadenopathy with palpation of the inguinal nodes. Visualization of the vulva shows dry skin but no lesions or masses. The labia are somewhat smaller than usual. Speculum examination reveals scant discharge, and the vaginal walls are red, dry, and bleed easily. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. The KOH whiff test produces no unusual odor and there are no clue cells on the wet prep. What form of vaginitis is this patient most likely to have?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with atrophic vaginitis, also known as vaginal atrophy. This condition typically occurs in postmenopausal women due to a decrease in estrogen levels, leading to thinning, drying, and inflammation of the vaginal walls. Symptoms of atrophic vaginitis include vaginal dryness, itching, discomfort with intercourse, and sometimes light bleeding after intercourse. The absence of vaginal discharge and the presence of vaginal dryness and bleeding easily upon examination suggest atrophic vaginitis as the most likely cause in this patient. Other causes of vaginitis such as Trichomonas vaginitis, Candida vaginitis, and bacterial vaginosis typically present with different symptoms and findings on examination.
Question 6 of 9
Otherwise she has had no health problems. Her father has high blood pressure. Her mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a family law attorney and is married. Her examination is essentially unremarkable. Which risk factor of her personal and family history most puts her in danger of getting breast cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most significant risk factor for breast cancer in the patient's personal and family history is having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer. This is because the age at which a family member was diagnosed with breast cancer can be indicative of potential genetic predispositions that may increase the patient's own risk of developing the disease. Women with a first-degree relative who was diagnosed with breast cancer before menopause (premenopausal) are at a higher risk themselves compared to those with a family history of postmenopausal breast cancer. In this case, the patient's mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s, which suggests a higher risk compared to postmenopausal breast cancer. Other factors such as early age at menarche or age at first live birth are also important in assessing breast cancer risk, but having a first-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer is the most significant
Question 7 of 9
Susanne is a 27-year-old who has had headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue for the last 2 months. You have completed a thorough history, examination, and laboratory workup but have not found a cause. What would your next action be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Since the patient, Susanne, has been experiencing headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue for the last 2 months, and a thorough history, examination, and laboratory workup have not revealed a definitive cause, the next step would be to screen for depression. Depression can present with physical symptoms such as headaches, muscle aches, and fatigue. It is important to consider mental health factors that could be contributing to Susanne's symptoms before proceeding with further referrals to specialists. Screening for depression would help in determining if psychological factors are playing a role in her physical symptoms.
Question 8 of 9
Where is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) normally located?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The point of maximal impulse (PMI), also known as the apical impulse, is the point where the left ventricle is closest to the chest wall. Normally, the PMI is located in the left 5th intercostal space, around 7 to 9 cm lateral to the sternum. This area corresponds to the apex of the heart. By palpating the PMI, healthcare providers can assess the size, strength, and regularity of the heart's contractions, which can provide important diagnostic information about cardiac health. Locating the PMI accurately is essential for physical examination and diagnosis of cardiac conditions.
Question 9 of 9
Dawn is a 55-year-old woman who comes in today for her yearly wellness examination. You carefully perform the rectal examination in the lithotomy position and feel a mass against the bowel wall which is firm and immobile. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of a firm and immobile mass felt against the bowel wall during a rectal examination is concerning for a potential malignancy, such as colon cancer. Other conditions such as hemorrhoids or anal fissures are typically not associated with a mass that is firm and immobile. The "Valve of Houston" is a term that does not pertain to this scenario and is not a recognized medical entity. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis based on the given information is colon cancer, and further evaluation such as a colonoscopy would be warranted for definitive diagnosis and management.