ATI RN
Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest. The lesion appears to be "stuck on" and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface. It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The description of an oval, brown, slightly elevated lesion with a flat surface and rough, wartlike texture on palpation is characteristic of a seborrheic keratosis. Seborrheic keratoses are common benign skin growths that typically occur in older adults. They can vary in color, ranging from tan to dark brown, and often have a waxy or stuck-on appearance. The lesion described does not fit the typical characteristics of actinic keratosis, basal cell carcinoma, or squamous cell carcinoma.
Question 2 of 9
A 25-year-old optical technician comes to your clinic for evaluation of fatigue. As part of your physical examination, you listen to her heart and hear a murmur only at the cardiac apex. Which valve is most likely to be involved, based on the location of the murmur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A murmur heard only at the cardiac apex is most likely due to mitral valve pathology. The mitral valve is located near the apex of the heart, and murmurs related to mitral valve issues are typically best heard at the apex during auscultation. Mitral valve diseases such as mitral valve prolapse, mitral stenosis, or mitral regurgitation can lead to the development of a murmur in this location.
Question 3 of 9
You find a bounding carotid pulse on a 62-year-old patient. Which murmur should you search out?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Finding a bounding carotid pulse suggests a wide pulse pressure, which can be associated with aortic insufficiency. Aortic insufficiency (also known as aortic regurgitation) is characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole due to incomplete closure of the aortic valve. This results in increased stroke volume and left ventricular pressure, leading to widened pulse pressure and a bounding arterial pulse. Therefore, when a bounding carotid pulse is detected in a patient, it is important to search for signs and symptoms of aortic insufficiency, such as a diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border and radiating to the neck.
Question 4 of 9
The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation in the hospital last year; the patient has never been intubated."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The information provided about the patient being treated for an asthma exacerbation and not being intubated falls under the category of adult illnesses. Asthma is a common respiratory condition that affects people of various ages but is more prevalent in adults. The fact that the patient was treated for an asthma exacerbation and has not required intubation indicates a relevant medical history related to adult illnesses and respiratory conditions. This information would be considered when evaluating and managing the patient's current health status and potential risks related to respiratory issues.
Question 5 of 9
You are seeing an elderly man with multiple complaints. He has chronic arthritis, pain from an old war injury, and headaches. Today he complains of these pains, as well as dull chest pain under his sternum. What would the order of priority be for your problem list?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct order of priority for the problem list in this case would be chest pain, headaches, arthritis, and war injury pain. Chest pain should always be a priority as it could indicate a serious or life-threatening condition such as a heart attack. Headaches, while important, are less urgent than chest pain. Arthritis can generally be managed without immediate intervention, making it a lower priority. Finally, the pain from the old war injury, while significant, is not as urgent as the other complaints.
Question 6 of 9
Induration along the ventral surface of the penis suggests which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Peyronie's disease is a condition characterized by the formation of fibrous scar tissue in the penis, leading to the development of plaques or indurations along the shaft of the penis, typically on the ventral surface. These plaques can cause penile curvature, pain, and erectile dysfunction. Urethral stricture, testicular carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts are not typically associated with indurations along the ventral surface of the penis.
Question 7 of 9
A 21-year-old receptionist comes to your clinic, complaining of frequent diarrhea. She states that the stools are very loose and there is some cramping beforehand. She states this has occurred on and off since she was in high school. She denies any nausea, vomiting, or blood in her stool. Occasionally she has periods of constipation, but that is rare. She thinks the diarrhea is much worse when she is nervous. Her past medical history is not significant. She is single and a junior in college majoring in accounting. She smokes when she drinks alcohol but denies using any illegal drugs. Both of her parents are healthy. Her entire physical examination is unremarkable. What is most likely the etiology of her diarrhea?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The patient's history of frequent loose stools with cramping, occurring since high school and worsening during periods of nervousness, along with occasional constipation, is characteristic of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). IBS is a functional gastrointestinal disorder that presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and altered bowel habits (diarrhea, constipation, or both) without any evidence of organic disease. The absence of systemic symptoms like fever, weight loss, or blood in the stool, as well as normal physical examination findings, also support the diagnosis of IBS in this case. This condition is often triggered or exacerbated by stress or anxiety. Monitoring stress levels, dietary modifications, and possibly prescription medications may help manage IBS symptoms in this patient.
Question 8 of 9
A 77-year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you are asked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term care facility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not typically associated with causing ulcers in the lower extremities. The most common causes of lower extremity ulcers are arterial insufficiency, venous insufficiency, and diminished sensation in pressure points. Arterial insufficiency leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, causing tissue damage and ulcers. Venous insufficiency results in poor circulation and increased pressure in the veins, leading to ulcers. Diminished sensation in pressure points, often seen in conditions like diabetes, can cause ulcers due to lack of feeling and increased risk of trauma. So, hypertension is not directly related to the development of lower extremity ulcers.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is a "red flag" regarding patients presenting with headache?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A "red flag" regarding patients presenting with a headache is their age being over 50. This is because new-onset or persistent headaches in individuals over 50 may raise concerns about underlying serious conditions such as temporal arteritis, brain tumor, or other vascular issues. It is important to thoroughly evaluate and consider these possibilities in older patients with headaches to ensure appropriate management and timely intervention.