A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest. The lesion appears to be "stuck on" and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface. It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Questions 27

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ATI RN Test Bank

Test Bank Physical Examination and Health Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 9

A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest. The lesion appears to be "stuck on" and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface. It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The description of an oval, brown, slightly elevated lesion with a flat surface and rough, wartlike texture on palpation is characteristic of a seborrheic keratosis. Seborrheic keratoses are common benign skin growths that typically occur in older adults. They can vary in color, ranging from tan to dark brown, and often have a waxy or stuck-on appearance. The lesion described does not fit the typical characteristics of actinic keratosis, basal cell carcinoma, or squamous cell carcinoma.

Question 2 of 9

Linda is a 29-year-old who had excruciating pain which started under her lower ribs on the right side. The pain eventually moved to her lateral abdomen and then into her right lower quadrant. Which is most likely, given this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The progression of excruciating pain starting under the lower ribs on the right side, then moving to the lateral abdomen, and finally settling in the right lower quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, a small tube-like structure attached to the cecum (beginning of the large intestine). The pain typically starts around the umbilicus and then migrates to the right lower quadrant, where the appendix is located. Other symptoms that may accompany appendicitis include fever, nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, and tenderness at McBurney's point (a specific area in the abdomen). It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to avoid complications such as perforation and peritonitis.

Question 3 of 9

You find a bounding carotid pulse on a 62-year-old patient. Which murmur should you search out?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Finding a bounding carotid pulse suggests a wide pulse pressure, which can be associated with aortic insufficiency. Aortic insufficiency (also known as aortic regurgitation) is characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole due to incomplete closure of the aortic valve. This results in increased stroke volume and left ventricular pressure, leading to widened pulse pressure and a bounding arterial pulse. Therefore, when a bounding carotid pulse is detected in a patient, it is important to search for signs and symptoms of aortic insufficiency, such as a diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border and radiating to the neck.

Question 4 of 9

A 77-year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you are asked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term care facility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not typically associated with causing ulcers in the lower extremities. The most common causes of lower extremity ulcers are arterial insufficiency, venous insufficiency, and diminished sensation in pressure points. Arterial insufficiency leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities, causing tissue damage and ulcers. Venous insufficiency results in poor circulation and increased pressure in the veins, leading to ulcers. Diminished sensation in pressure points, often seen in conditions like diabetes, can cause ulcers due to lack of feeling and increased risk of trauma. So, hypertension is not directly related to the development of lower extremity ulcers.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following is consistent with obturator sign?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The obturator sign is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for irritation of the obturator muscle due to an inflamed appendix that is in close proximity. This pain is typically felt in the right lower quadrant or hypogastric region. The sign is elicited by passively flexing the hip and knee of the patient, then internally rotating the hip. An alternative method is to position the patient on her left side and ask her to raise her right thigh against resistance while the examiner provides counterpressure. Pain experienced by the patient with these maneuvers is consistent with obturator sign, indicating possible appendicitis. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

Question 6 of 9

A 68-year-old retired banker comes to your clinic for evaluation of left shoulder pain. He swims for 30 minutes daily, early in the morning. He notes a sharp, catching pain and a sensation of something grating when he tries overhead movements of his arm. On physical examination, you note tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of the tendon insertions. The drop arm test is negative, and there is no limitation with shoulder shrug. The patient is not holding his arm close to his side, and there is no tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove when the arm is at the patient's side, flexed to 90 degrees, and then supinated against resistance. Based on this description, what is the most likely cause of his shoulder pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The description of the patient's left shoulder pain, with a sharp catching pain and a sensation of something grating during overhead movements, in addition to tenderness just below the tip of the acromion in the area of tendon insertions, is suggestive of calcific tendinitis. Calcific tendinitis occurs when calcium deposits form within a tendon, most commonly affecting the rotator cuff tendons. This condition can cause pain, tenderness, and limited range of motion, particularly with certain movements like overhead reaching. The negative drop arm test, lack of limitation with shoulder shrug, absence of tenderness to palpation in the bicipital groove, and the patient not holding his arm close to his side help differentiate calcific tendinitis from other shoulder pathologies like rotator cuff tendinitis, rotator cuff tear, and bicipital tendinitis.

Question 7 of 9

Where is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) normally located?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The point of maximal impulse (PMI), also known as the apical impulse, is the point where the left ventricle is closest to the chest wall. Normally, the PMI is located in the left 5th intercostal space, around 7 to 9 cm lateral to the sternum. This area corresponds to the apex of the heart. By palpating the PMI, healthcare providers can assess the size, strength, and regularity of the heart's contractions, which can provide important diagnostic information about cardiac health. Locating the PMI accurately is essential for physical examination and diagnosis of cardiac conditions.

Question 8 of 9

You are seeing an elderly man with multiple complaints. He has chronic arthritis, pain from an old war injury, and headaches. Today he complains of these pains, as well as dull chest pain under his sternum. What would the order of priority be for your problem list?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct order of priority for the problem list in this case would be chest pain, headaches, arthritis, and war injury pain. Chest pain should always be a priority as it could indicate a serious or life-threatening condition such as a heart attack. Headaches, while important, are less urgent than chest pain. Arthritis can generally be managed without immediate intervention, making it a lower priority. Finally, the pain from the old war injury, while significant, is not as urgent as the other complaints.

Question 9 of 9

A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest. The lesion appears to be "stuck on" and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface. It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The description of an oval, brown, slightly elevated lesion with a flat surface and rough, wartlike texture on palpation is characteristic of a seborrheic keratosis. Seborrheic keratoses are common benign skin growths that typically occur in older adults. They can vary in color, ranging from tan to dark brown, and often have a waxy or stuck-on appearance. The lesion described does not fit the typical characteristics of actinic keratosis, basal cell carcinoma, or squamous cell carcinoma.

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