A 57-year-old man with a seizure disorder takes anti-epileptic medications. His physician would like to use a medicine that is metabolized only by the CYP1A2 receptor. Which of the following agents would be preferred?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Felbamate is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A2 enzyme, making it a suitable choice for patients where CYP1A2 metabolism is desired.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Vigabatrin inhibits GABA transaminase

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Valproic acid. Valproic acid is commonly prescribed for absence seizures due to its effectiveness in controlling this specific type of seizure. It works by increasing the levels of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, helping to prevent the abnormal electrical activity that leads to absence seizures. Phenytoin (A) and Phenobarbital (B) are not typically used for absence seizures. Phenytoin is more commonly used for focal and tonic-clonic seizures, while Phenobarbital is often used for generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Clonazepam (D) is also not the first-line treatment for absence seizures. It is more commonly used for myoclonic seizures and certain types of epilepsy syndromes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hydralazine causes vasodilation, which can lead to reflex tachycardia, headache, and postural hypotension.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Alzheimer's disease currently has no cure. Step 1: Alzheimer's is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that worsens over time, leading to memory loss (A). Step 2: The exact cause is unknown, with various theories proposed (B). Step 3: Behavioral symptoms like personality changes, wandering, and aggression are common (C). Step 4: There is no cure for Alzheimer's; current treatments aim to manage symptoms and slow progression, not cure the disease (D). The other options are accurate statements related to Alzheimer's disease, making them incorrect choices in this context.