ATI RN
Cardiovascular Inflammation Drug Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 57-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. He is found to have a blood pressure of 150/100 mm Hg on three successive occasions. He has begun on an antihypertensive agent. After taking the first dose of the medication, he goes out to play golf and collapses on the golf course. Which one of the following drugs may be responsible for his symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 2 of 5
A patient who has been using a new antihypertensive medication developed persistent cough. The involved drug is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
An elderly client diagnosed with schizophrenia takes an antipsychotic and a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension. Understanding the combined side effects of these drugs, the nurse would most appropriately make which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer: Choice C is correct because both antipsychotics and beta-blockers can cause orthostatic hypotension, which may lead to dizziness or fainting when changing positions. Instructing the client to rise slowly can help prevent falls and injuries. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: Deep breathing is not directly related to the side effects of these medications. B: Diet and physical activity are important for overall health but not specifically related to the side effects of these medications. D: Sunscreen and sun exposure are not relevant to the side effects of antipsychotics and beta-blockers.
Question 4 of 5
Which mental illness should a nurse identify as being associated with a decrease in prolactin hormone level?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Schizophrenia. Schizophrenia is associated with a decrease in prolactin hormone levels due to the dysregulation of dopamine, which inhibits prolactin release. Major depressive episode (A) and Alzheimer's disease (D) are not typically associated with prolactin level changes. Anorexia nervosa (C) is associated with an increase, not a decrease, in prolactin levels due to stress and malnutrition.
Question 5 of 5
The spouse of a man being treated with sertraline (Zoloft) calls to report that he had a grand mal seizure. Prior to the seizure, he had seemed confused and his forehead felt hot. The man does not have a seizure-disorder history. Which action should the nurse direct the spouse to take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the man experienced a grand mal seizure, confusion, and a hot forehead, which are signs of a potential medical emergency. Calling 911 for immediate transportation to the hospital is crucial to ensure prompt medical evaluation and treatment. Seizures can be life-threatening, and it is essential to have medical professionals assess the situation. Choice A is incorrect because waiting to see if there are more seizures can delay necessary medical intervention. Choice C is incorrect as holding the medication and encouraging fluids does not address the immediate medical emergency of a seizure. Choice D is incorrect because administering an antipyretic drug for fever does not address the seizure itself or the underlying cause.