A 56-year-old man with Type-2 diabetes mellitus managed with acarbose presents to his primary care physician for a follow-up evaluation. His most recent laboratory studies indicate normal serum glucose levels and low serum amylase. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?

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Endocrine Pharmacology Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 56-year-old man with Type-2 diabetes mellitus managed with acarbose presents to his primary care physician for a follow-up evaluation. His most recent laboratory studies indicate normal serum glucose levels and low serum amylase. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Acarbose inhibits intestinal alpha-glucosidase, not pancreatic amylase directly, but reduced carbohydrate breakdown may lower serum amylase demand, a benign finding here.

Question 2 of 5

An 18-year-old male high school baseball player is interested in improving his hitting ability. He receives twice weekly injections of anabolic steroids. Over the next year, which of the following effects would be likely observed in this patient?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Anabolic steroids accelerate epiphyseal closure in adolescents, stunting long bone growth due to excess androgen activity.

Question 3 of 5

A 34-year-old man who is obese has been unable to lose weight by diet management and exercise. He also has hypertension and prediabetes. His physician prescribes orlistat to cut down on the amount of calories he takes in. Which of the following describes the mechanism of orlistat?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Orlistat inhibits pancreatic lipase, reducing fat absorption in the gut, aiding weight loss by lowering caloric intake.

Question 4 of 5

A 17-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with polydipsia and polyuria. She is found to have high amounts of amino acids, phosphates, bicarbonate, and glucose in her urine. She reports that after complaining to a friend about her acne, her friend gave her some old acne medication that she had in her medicine cabinet. Which medication did she likely use?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Isotretinoin can cause Fanconi syndrome (proximal tubular dysfunction), leading to glucosuria, aminoaciduria, and phosphaturia, matching her symptoms.

Question 5 of 5

A son brings his 72-year-old father into his scheduled follow-up after being placed on a new pharmacotherapy for his chronic hypertension. The patient also suffers from renal failure, and his son is his primary caretaker. Although the patient was on the maximum dose of hydralazine in addition to an ACE inhibitor and diuretic, the therapy has not effectively managing his severe hypertension. If the doctor replaces the hydralazine in the patient's drug regime, what medication is most likely to be chosen as a replacement?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Minoxidil, a potent vasodilator, is often used for refractory hypertension, suitable for replacing hydralazine in severe cases with renal failure.

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