A 56-year-old man came to the clinic with complaints of tremor, bradykinesia, and “a feeling of persistent restlessness” after beginning a new antipsychotic regimen 2 months ago. The patient has a history of schizophrenia and depression. He is afraid he may have Parkinson's syndrome. The doctor recommended cessation of the new regimen and assures the patient the symptoms will clear after a few weeks or months after withdrawal. What antipsychotic was the most likely to have caused the patient's symptoms?

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Introduction to the Pharmacology of CNS Drugs Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 56-year-old man came to the clinic with complaints of tremor, bradykinesia, and “a feeling of persistent restlessness” after beginning a new antipsychotic regimen 2 months ago. The patient has a history of schizophrenia and depression. He is afraid he may have Parkinson's syndrome. The doctor recommended cessation of the new regimen and assures the patient the symptoms will clear after a few weeks or months after withdrawal. What antipsychotic was the most likely to have caused the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 2 of 5

A 54-year-old man with multiple medical problems and anxiety is placed on diazepam. He has been taking the medication for 6 months. He is concerned that he is having changes in his memory as a result of being on this medication. Which of the following memory effects are likely?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 3 of 5

A 62-year-old woman with a history of mental decline, impaired physical activity, and significant mood impairment is seen by her primary care physician. Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant has begun. Which of the following statements regarding this therapeutic option is true?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 4 of 5

A 53-year-old man with long-standing schizophrenia has failed therapy with both first- and second-generation antipsychotic agents. He still has significant problems with mood, delusions, and hallucinations. He is placed on clozapine. Which of the following effects must the treating physician be aware of?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 5 of 5

All of the following are NSAIDs EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that alleviate inflammation, pain, and fever by inhibiting cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes, thus reducing prostaglandin synthesis. Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Piroxicam are classic NSAIDs, widely used for conditions like arthritis, menstrual pain, or musculoskeletal injuries due to their anti-inflammatory properties. Butorphanol, however, is an opioid analgesic, not an NSAID. It acts as a mixed agonist-antagonist at opioid receptors (primarily kappa and mu), providing pain relief without significant anti-inflammatory effects, often used for migraines or postoperative pain. Unlike NSAIDs, it doesn't target COX enzymes or reduce inflammation but modulates pain perception via the central nervous system. This fundamental difference in mechanism and drug class makes Butorphanol the exception. Understanding this distinction is crucial in pharmacology to select appropriate treatments based on whether inflammation or pain is the primary concern, preventing misuse and ensuring patient safety.

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