ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 56-year-old homosexual man presents with itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus of 1 week's duration. Rectal examination reveals generalized tenderness without frank prostate abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Given the patient's presentation of itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus, along with rectal examination findings of generalized tenderness without prostate abnormalities, proctitis is the most likely diagnosis. Proctitis is inflammation of the rectal lining and is commonly associated with symptoms such as rectal pain, itching, tenesmus (feeling of incomplete defecation), and sometimes rectal bleeding. It can have various causes, including sexually transmitted infections (such as gonorrhea, chlamydia), inflammatory bowel disease, radiation therapy, or trauma.
Question 2 of 9
You are running late after your quarterly quality improvement meeting at the hospital and have just gotten paged from the nurses' station because a family member of one of your patients wants to talk with you about that patient's care. You have clinic this afternoon and are double- booked for the first appointment time; three other patients also have arrived and are sitting in the waiting room. Which of the following demeanors is a behavior consistent with skilled interviewing when you walk into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is important to maintain a calm demeanor when walking into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient, especially in a busy and high-pressure situation. Demonstrating calmness will help to build rapport with the patient, create a sense of trust, and promote effective communication. This demeanor will also convey professionalism and confidence, which are essential qualities for a healthcare provider. Displaying irritability, impatience, or boredom can negatively impact the patient-provider relationship and hinder effective communication, potentially compromising the quality of care provided.
Question 3 of 9
Mr. Patel is a 64-year-old man who was told by another care provider that his liver is enlarged. Although he is a life-long smoker, he has never used drugs or alcohol and has no knowledge of liver disease. Indeed, on examination, a liver edge is palpable 4 centimeters below the costal arch. Which of the following would you do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Mr. Patel's case involves an enlarged liver, which warrants further investigation to determine the underlying cause. An ultrasound of the liver would provide valuable information regarding the size, shape, and texture of the liver, helping to identify any potential abnormalities such as liver cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, or liver tumors. This imaging study can also help differentiate between different conditions that may be causing the liver enlargement, guiding subsequent diagnostic and treatment decisions. Therefore, obtaining an ultrasound of the liver is the most appropriate next step in evaluating Mr. Patel's condition.
Question 4 of 9
How should you determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: To determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic, you should judge the relative length of systole and diastole by auscultation. Systolic murmurs occur during systole, which is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart is contracting and pushing blood out of the chambers. Diastolic murmurs occur during diastole, which is the phase when the heart is relaxing and filling with blood. By carefully listening to the timing of the murmur in relation to the cardiac cycle, you can determine if it is systolic or diastolic. Palpating the carotid pulse (Choice A) or radial pulse (Choice B) can help assess the pulse characteristics, but it does not directly determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic. Correlating the murmur with a bedside heart monitor (Choice D) may provide additional information about heart rate or rhythm, but it does not specifically indicate
Question 5 of 9
A patient with hearing loss by whisper test is further examined with a tuning fork, using the Weber and Rinne maneuvers. The abnormal results are as follows: bone conduction is greater than air on the left, and the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better on the left. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, specifically around the stapes bone. In cases of otosclerosis, the bone conduction is greater than air conduction on the affected side, which is seen in the scenario described. The Weber test localizes to the affected ear, meaning the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better in the left ear in this case. This is because the abnormal bone growth can restrict the movement of the ossicles, leading to a conductive hearing loss. Otosclerosis typically affects one ear, and its presentation aligns with the results of the hearing tests performed in this case.
Question 6 of 9
On a very busy day in the office, Mrs. Donelan, who is 81 years old, comes for her usual visit for her blood pressure. She is on a low-dose diuretic chronically and denies any side effects. Her blood pressure is 118/78 today, which is well-controlled. As you are writing her script, she mentions that it is hard not having her husband Bill around anymore. What would you do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important to show empathy and address Mrs. Donelan's feelings about missing her husband. By asking why Bill is not there, you are opening the door for her to talk about her emotions and potentially offer support or resources. This can help build a stronger patient-provider relationship and address any underlying emotional concerns she may have. It is important to prioritize the patient's emotional well-being along with their physical health during the visit.
Question 7 of 9
A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.
Question 8 of 9
Mark is a contractor who recently injured his back. He was told he had a "bulging disc" to account for the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop. The vertebral bodies of the spine involve which type of joint?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The vertebral bodies of the spine involve cartilaginous joints. Cartilaginous joints are connected by cartilage, which allows for slight movement and flexibility. In the spine, the cartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies are called intervertebral discs. These discs act as shock absorbers and provide cushioning between each vertebra, helping to prevent bone-on-bone contact. In Mark's case, the presence of a bulging disc suggests that there is an issue with the cartilaginous joint between his vertebral bodies, leading to the compression of a spinal nerve and causing the burning pain down his right leg and slight foot drop.
Question 9 of 9
His head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. There are some crackles in the bases of each lung. During his cardiac examination there is an extra heart sound. Visualization of his penis shows an uncircumcised prepuce but no lesions or masses. Palpation of his scrotum shows generalized swelling, with no discrete masses. A gloved finger is placed through each inguinal ring, and with bearing down there are no bulges. The prostate is smooth and nontender. What abnormality of the scrotum is most likely the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Scrotal edema refers to swelling of the scrotum, which can be caused by various reasons such as infection, inflammation, trauma, or fluid collection. In this case, the examination findings of generalized swelling of the scrotum with no discrete masses or bulges on palpation suggest scrotal edema as the most likely diagnosis. The absence of bulges when a finger is placed through the inguinal rings with bearing down rules out a scrotal hernia. Hydrocele typically presents as a painless fluid-filled sac around the testicle, but there are no specific findings mentioned in the scenario to suggest a hydrocele. Varicocele involves dilated veins in the scrotum and may present as a soft lump that feels like a "bag of worms," which is not described in the examination findings provided.