A 56-year-old homosexual man presents with itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus of 1 week's duration. Rectal examination reveals generalized tenderness without frank prostate abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Given the patient's presentation of itching, anorectal pain, and tenesmus, along with rectal examination findings of generalized tenderness without prostate abnormalities, proctitis is the most likely diagnosis. Proctitis is inflammation of the rectal lining and is commonly associated with symptoms such as rectal pain, itching, tenesmus (feeling of incomplete defecation), and sometimes rectal bleeding. It can have various causes, including sexually transmitted infections (such as gonorrhea, chlamydia), inflammatory bowel disease, radiation therapy, or trauma.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Metrorrhagia refers to abnormal bleeding between menstrual periods. This can manifest as spotting or heavier bleeding outside of the regular menstrual cycle. It is important to differentiate metrorrhagia from other types of abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia (excessive flow), oligomenorrhea (infrequent bleeding), and polymenorrhea (fewer than 21 days between menses) in order to address and diagnose the underlying cause accurately.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is crucial to assess Adam's suicide risk immediately due to the statements he made about it being better if he were not here. This indicates possible suicidal ideation, which requires urgent attention and intervention. Asking directly about suicidal thoughts and intentions can help determine the level of risk and ensure that appropriate support and resources are provided to Adam. It is important to take any mention of suicide seriously and prioritize the safety and well-being of the individual in such situations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, specifically around the stapes bone. In cases of otosclerosis, the bone conduction is greater than air conduction on the affected side, which is seen in the scenario described. The Weber test localizes to the affected ear, meaning the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better in the left ear in this case. This is because the abnormal bone growth can restrict the movement of the ossicles, leading to a conductive hearing loss. Otosclerosis typically affects one ear, and its presentation aligns with the results of the hearing tests performed in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Ischemic symptoms in the upper calf are indicative of peripheral artery disease affecting the tibial or peroneal arteries. These arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the lower leg and foot region, hence causing symptoms such as pain, cramping, or numbness in the upper calf area. Symptoms in the lower calf would typically be associated with more proximal arterial segments like femoral or iliac arteries. So, option D correctly matches the ischemic symptoms with the appropriate vascular supply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: It is important to show empathy and address Mrs. Donelan's feelings about missing her husband. By asking why Bill is not there, you are opening the door for her to talk about her emotions and potentially offer support or resources. This can help build a stronger patient-provider relationship and address any underlying emotional concerns she may have. It is important to prioritize the patient's emotional well-being along with their physical health during the visit.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Mr. Patel's case involves an enlarged liver, which warrants further investigation to determine the underlying cause. An ultrasound of the liver would provide valuable information regarding the size, shape, and texture of the liver, helping to identify any potential abnormalities such as liver cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, or liver tumors. This imaging study can also help differentiate between different conditions that may be causing the liver enlargement, guiding subsequent diagnostic and treatment decisions. Therefore, obtaining an ultrasound of the liver is the most appropriate next step in evaluating Mr. Patel's condition.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Diplopia occurring when one eye is covered is a condition known as monocular diplopia. This symptom is typically not caused by problems within the eye itself, such as irregularities in the cornea or lens. Instead, monocular diplopia with one eye covered is more likely to be an indication of a neurological issue, often involving the brainstem. Lesions or damage in the brainstem can disrupt the normal coordination of eye movements, leading to the perception of double vision when one eye is closed. Weakness of CN III (oculomotor nerve) or CN IV (trochlear nerve) may cause diplopia when both eyes are open, but it would not typically manifest as monocular diplopia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: It is important to maintain a calm demeanor when walking into the examination room to speak with your first clinic patient, especially in a busy and high-pressure situation. Demonstrating calmness will help to build rapport with the patient, create a sense of trust, and promote effective communication. This demeanor will also convey professionalism and confidence, which are essential qualities for a healthcare provider. Displaying irritability, impatience, or boredom can negatively impact the patient-provider relationship and hinder effective communication, potentially compromising the quality of care provided.