A 55-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled essential hypertension had recently added atenolol to her therapeutic regimen. Which of the following was most likely a primary mechanism that mediated the antihypertensive effect of atenolol in this patient?

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Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 55-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled essential hypertension had recently added atenolol to her therapeutic regimen. Which of the following was most likely a primary mechanism that mediated the antihypertensive effect of atenolol in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Inhibition of epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors. By doing so, it inhibits the effects of catecholamines such as epinephrine, which normally act to increase heart rate and contractility, leading to elevated blood pressure. By blocking these effects, atenolol reduces heart rate and cardiac output, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Option A) Dilation of large veins is incorrect because atenolol primarily acts on the heart and not on blood vessels. It does not directly cause vasodilation. Option C) Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used for hypertensive emergencies, but it works through a different mechanism involving direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle, not through beta-blockade like atenolol. Option D) Fenoldopam is a selective dopamine receptor agonist that causes arterial vasodilation but does not inhibit epinephrine release like atenolol. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of cardiovascular drugs like atenolol is crucial for nurses and other healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients with hypertension. Knowing how each drug works allows for appropriate selection, monitoring, and patient education regarding potential side effects and interactions.

Question 2 of 5

The term ischemic heart disease (IHD) is used to designate all of the following conditions except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Congestive heart failure (CHF). Ischemic heart disease (IHD) refers to a condition where there is a reduced blood supply to the heart muscle due to narrowed coronary arteries. This leads to inadequate oxygen supply to the heart, resulting in various conditions. Angina pectoris (option A) is chest pain or discomfort that occurs when the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Sudden cardiac death (option B) is a sudden, unexpected death caused by loss of heart function, usually due to arrhythmias (option D). Arrhythmias (option D) are abnormal heart rhythms that can result from IHD. Congestive heart failure (CHF) (option C) is a condition where the heart can't pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. While CHF can be caused by IHD, it is not synonymous with IHD. In an educational context, understanding the different conditions associated with IHD is crucial for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX. It helps them differentiate between various cardiovascular diseases and their manifestations, aiding in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management strategies for patients with cardiovascular issues.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question on cardiovascular drugs pharmacology, the correct answer is A) Pinacidil, which is a potassium channel opener. Pinacidil acts by opening ATP-sensitive potassium channels in vascular smooth muscle cells, leading to hyperpolarization and relaxation of the smooth muscle, ultimately resulting in vasodilation. Option B) Hydralazine is a direct-acting vasodilator that works through a different mechanism by directly relaxing arteriolar smooth muscle, without affecting potassium channels. Option C) Glibenclamide is a sulfonylurea drug used in the treatment of diabetes by stimulating insulin release from pancreatic beta cells, and it does not affect potassium channels in the cardiovascular system. Option D) Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts on the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney to inhibit sodium reabsorption but does not have any direct effect on potassium channels in the vasculature. Understanding the mechanisms of action of these drugs is crucial for nursing students preparing for the NCLEX exam as it helps in making informed decisions regarding drug therapy for patients with cardiovascular conditions. Knowing the specific actions of each drug can also aid in predicting potential side effects and drug interactions, ensuring safe and effective patient care.

Question 4 of 5

Fibrinolysis is mainly carried out by

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fibrinolysis is a critical process in the body that helps dissolve blood clots. In this context, the correct answer is C) Both (a) and (b) - Tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA) and Urokinase-type plasminogen activator (u-PA). Tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA) is primarily produced by endothelial cells and plays a crucial role in converting plasminogen to plasmin, which then degrades fibrin clots. Urokinase-type plasminogen activator (u-PA) is another enzyme that also converts plasminogen to plasmin, contributing to the fibrinolytic process. Option A) Tissue-type plasminogen activator (t-PA) is correct because it is a key activator in fibrinolysis. Option B) Urokinase-type plasminogen activator (u-PA) is also correct as it is another important activator in the breakdown of blood clots. Therefore, the correct answer C) Both (a) and (b) encompasses the main activators involved in fibrinolysis. Option D) None of the above is incorrect as both t-PA and u-PA are essential components of the fibrinolytic system. Understanding the mechanisms of fibrinolysis is crucial in the context of cardiovascular drugs pharmacology, as drugs targeting these pathways are used in clinical practice to manage conditions such as acute myocardial infarction and ischemic stroke. Knowing the specific activators involved in fibrinolysis helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions regarding treatment options for patients with thrombotic disorders.

Question 5 of 5

The client is taking an ACE inhibitor. What is a contraindication to taking this drug?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Renal artery stenosis. ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed for conditions like hypertension and heart failure due to their ability to dilate blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. However, in the case of renal artery stenosis, ACE inhibitors can potentially worsen kidney function. This is because ACE inhibitors can further decrease blood flow to the kidneys by dilating the efferent arterioles, which can exacerbate renal insufficiency in individuals with renal artery stenosis. Option A) Hypertension is an incorrect answer because ACE inhibitors are actually indicated for the treatment of hypertension. Option B) Bronchospasm is an incorrect answer because ACE inhibitors do not typically cause bronchospasm. In fact, they are often used in the management of heart failure and other cardiovascular conditions. Option D) Heart failure is an incorrect answer because ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed for heart failure to help improve cardiac function and outcomes. Educationally, understanding the contraindications of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially when administering drugs that can have significant impacts on a patient's condition. This knowledge ensures safe and effective patient care by preventing adverse reactions and complications. Healthcare providers need to be well-versed in the indications and contraindications of drugs to make informed decisions in clinical practice and provide optimal patient care.

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