ATI RN
ASCP Hematology Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 55-year-old man presented to his primary care physician for evaluation of fatigue. He was previously healthy with the exception of chronic musculoskeletal low back pain, for which he occasionally takes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. On examination, he is pale. Complete blood cell count results are as follows: hemoglobin 8.3 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume 73 fL, leukocyte count 6.9 × 10^9/L, and platelet count 398 × 10^9/L. Results of the fecal occult blood test are positive. During upper and lower endoscopy, a 1.2 × 2.5-cm ulcerative lesion is noted in the lesser curvature of the stomach. The lesion is biopsied and identified as a MALT lymphoma. Which of the following is characteristic of MALT lymphoma?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Gastric MALT lymphoma is often Helicobacter pylori-related, with 70% cured by antibiotics (amoxicillin, omeprazole, clarithromycin). Anthracyclines (A) and radiotherapy (C) are for advanced cases. Chlamydophila psittaci (B) links to ocular MALT, not gastric. Transformation (D) is less common.
Question 2 of 5
Matching: Hemolytic anemia - Decay-accelerating factor deficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decay-accelerating factor deficiency relates to paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, but in this context, autoimmune hemolytic anemia (B) fits best as an acquired condition.
Question 3 of 5
Matching: Hemolytic anemia - Thermal sensitivity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (C) RBCs are thermally sensitive, fragmenting at high temperatures.
Question 4 of 5
Matching: Anemia - Orotic aciduria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Orotic aciduria (C) causes macrocytic anemia due to impaired pyrimidine synthesis.
Question 5 of 5
Matching: Red blood cell aplasia - X-linked recessive
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Neither (D) is X-linked; Diamond-Blackfan is mostly autosomal, TEC is acquired.