ATI RN
Disorders of the Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 55-year-old man is experiencing severe pain of sudden onset in the scrotal area. It is somewhat relieved by elevation. On examination the nurse notices an enlarged, red scrotum that is very tender to palpation. Distinguishing the epididymis from the testis is difficult, and the scrotal skin is thick and edematous. This description is consistent with which of these?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Epididymitis. The key features that point towards epididymitis in this case include sudden onset severe scrotal pain, tenderness in the scrotal area, difficulty in distinguishing the epididymis from the testis, and thick, edematous scrotal skin. Epididymitis is inflammation of the epididymis typically caused by a bacterial infection. The pain is often relieved by elevation due to reduced pressure. Varicocele (A) is a painless swelling of the veins in the scrotum. Spermatocele (C) is a benign cyst containing sperm that is usually painless. Testicular torsion (D) presents with sudden, severe testicular pain but does not typically involve difficulty in differentiating between the epididymis and testis or edematous scrotal skin.
Question 2 of 5
"Red man syndrome "has been associated with rapid intravenous injection of * which of the following antibiotic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vancomycin. Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction caused by rapid infusion of vancomycin. Vancomycin infusion releases histamine, leading to flushing, rash, and hypotension. Clindamycin (B), Cefoperazone (C), and Piperacillin (D) are not associated with red man syndrome. Clindamycin can cause pseudomembranous colitis, Cefoperazone can cause bleeding disorders, and Piperacillin can cause hypersensitivity reactions, but not red man syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene * epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onymycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Terbinafine is the correct answer as it inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase, disrupting ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane. This drug is specifically effective against onychomycosis in diabetic patients due to its fungicidal action and good nail penetration. Griseofulvin (A) targets microtubules, not squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) inhibits ergosterol synthesis via a different mechanism. Amphotericin B (D) disrupts fungal cell membrane by binding to ergosterol, not squalene epoxidase.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drug used in the treatment of filariasis? *
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Diethyl carbamazine is the correct answer for the treatment of filariasis as it is the drug of choice due to its effectiveness in killing microfilariae and adult worms. Diethyl carbamazine directly targets the parasites responsible for filariasis, leading to their death and eventual elimination from the body. Albendazole, Levamisole, and Piperazine are not commonly used for filariasis treatment and are more commonly used for other parasitic infections. Albendazole is more commonly used for helminthic infections, Levamisole for roundworm infections, and Piperazine for pinworm infections.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme? *
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ritonavir. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor that works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, which is crucial for viral replication. This action helps prevent the virus from spreading and multiplying in the body. Lamivudine (A), Efavirenz (B), and Stavudine (C) are not protease inhibitors and work through different mechanisms like nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Lamivudine and Stavudine) and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition (Efavirenz). Therefore, they do not directly target the HIV protease enzyme like Ritonavir does.