ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 55-year-old man is concerned about hair loss. The nurse expects that the patient’s baldness may be treated with which drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Finasteride is an FDA-approved medication for male pattern baldness (androgenetic alopecia). It works by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is responsible for hair follicle miniaturization. Dexamethasone (A), para-aminobenzoic acid (B), and mupirocin (C) are not used to treat hair loss.
Question 2 of 5
Nurse Bryan knows that the age group that uses the most units of blood and blood products is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The elderly above age 65 years are the largest consumers of blood and blood products due to the higher prevalence of chronic diseases, surgeries, and medical conditions that require transfusions, such as anemia, cancer, and cardiovascular diseases. While premature infants and children may require blood products, their overall usage is lower compared to the elderly population. Adults aged 21-64 also use blood products, but the demand is highest among the elderly due to their increased healthcare needs.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following agents if taken in overdose by a depressed patient is most likely to result in a fatal outcome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Overdose fatality depends on toxicity and mechanism. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), blocks sodium channels and muscarinic receptors, causing lethal arrhythmias, seizures, and anticholinergic effects (LD50 ~13 mg/kg), making it highly fatal. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, and citalopram, all SSRIs, primarily cause serotonin syndrome or seizures, but lethality is lower (e.g., citalopram's QT risk is less immediate). TCAs' cardiotoxicity far exceeds SSRIs', driving amitriptyline's higher fatality rate, a critical factor in prescribing for depression with suicide risk.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following receptor-ligand pathway is TRUE:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin acts via tyrosine kinase receptors, not G-protein-coupled receptors, so that's false. Mineralocorticoids (e.g., aldosterone) bind intracellular receptors, not tyrosine kinase, making that incorrect. Vitamin D binds intracellular nuclear receptors, regulating gene transcription, a true statement and the correct pathway. Adrenaline acts via G-protein-coupled adrenergic receptors, not ligand-gated channels, so that's false. Platelet-derived growth factor uses tyrosine kinase, not cytokine receptors. Vitamin D's intracellular action is key to its role in calcium homeostasis, distinguishing it from membrane-bound receptor mechanisms.
Question 5 of 5
The goal of androgen therapy in men is to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Androgen therapy in men, typically testosterone replacement, aims to boost libido and treat erectile dysfunction by restoring normal androgen levels, countering hypogonadism's effects like reduced sexual drive. Decreasing libido contradicts its purpose, as low testosterone already dims desire. It doesn't release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)-exogenous androgens may suppress FSH and LH via feedback inhibition. Increasing luteinizing hormone (LH) isn't the goal; therapy bypasses LH by directly providing testosterone. Raising libido aligns with correcting symptoms of androgen deficiency, improving quality of life and sexual function, a primary clinical indication supported by its action on androgen receptors in sexual tissues.