ATI RN
PICO Question Psychiatric Emergency Nursing Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 55 year old man has difficulty breathing after being stabbed with a knife in the right side of his neck. Which nerve is most likely damaged?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Phrenic nerve. The phrenic nerve innervates the diaphragm, the primary muscle responsible for breathing. Damage to the phrenic nerve can lead to difficulty breathing, as seen in the case of the man stabbed in the neck. Option A) Greater splanchnic nerve is not involved in respiratory function but rather plays a role in transmitting visceral sensory information. Option C) Recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for vocal cord movement and sensation in the larynx, not breathing. Option D) Spinal accessory nerve controls certain neck muscles, but not those directly involved in breathing. Understanding the anatomy and function of these nerves is crucial for nurses in a psychiatric emergency setting. In emergencies where respiratory distress is involved, identifying the nerve affected can help in providing appropriate care and interventions to support the patient's breathing. This knowledge enhances the nurse's ability to assess, intervene, and communicate effectively with the healthcare team in managing such critical situations.
Question 2 of 5
A 42 year old woman tests positive for high-risk HPV on a routine cervical smear. Cervical Cytology: moderate dyskaryosis. Which is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate management option is B) Refer for colposcopy. The rationale behind this choice is rooted in evidence-based practice. High-risk HPV and moderate dyskaryosis indicate abnormal changes in cervical cells that require further investigation to rule out or confirm the presence of cervical precancer or cancer. Colposcopy allows for a detailed visual examination of the cervix to identify any abnormal areas that may need further evaluation or treatment. Option A) No action required is incorrect because high-risk HPV and moderate dyskaryosis require follow-up due to the increased risk of cervical abnormalities. Option C) Repeat smear in 3 months is not the best choice as it delays more definitive evaluation and management that colposcopy can provide. Option D) Repeat smear in 1 year is also not the most appropriate choice as it prolongs the time before necessary intervention, potentially allowing any abnormalities to progress. Educationally, understanding the significance of abnormal cervical cytology findings and the appropriate management steps is crucial for nurses working in gynecological or women's health settings. It emphasizes the importance of timely and evidence-based interventions to ensure the best outcomes for patients at risk of cervical cancer.
Question 3 of 5
A 60 year old man is anuric on the renal unit. Ultrasound: stone impacted at the pelvi-ureteric junction. Which is the most appropriate therapeutic intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic intervention in this case is option C) Percutaneous right nephrostomy. This intervention involves placing a tube directly into the kidney to drain urine when the normal passage is blocked, such as in the case of an impacted stone at the pelvi-ureteric junction. Bladder catheterization (option A) would not address the actual blockage in the ureter and would not help in relieving the obstruction caused by the stone. Lithotripsy (option B) is a procedure to break up stones in the kidney or ureter, but it may not be effective for a stone impacted at the pelvi-ureteric junction. Retrograde drainage of the right renal tract (option D) may not provide adequate drainage for the obstruction at the junction. Educationally, understanding the appropriate therapeutic interventions for urinary tract obstructions due to stones is crucial for nurses in a psychiatric emergency setting. Prompt and correct intervention can prevent further complications such as renal failure or sepsis. Nurses need to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of urinary tract obstructions and understand the appropriate interventions to provide optimal patient care.
Question 4 of 5
A 72 year old man has increasing difficulty speaking clearly for last 2 years. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely diagnosis for the 72-year-old man experiencing increasing difficulty speaking clearly for the last 2 years is Frontal-temporal dementia (Option B). Frontal-temporal dementia is characterized by progressive language difficulties, including speech production issues. Patients may experience changes in behavior, personality, and language abilities, which align with the symptoms described in the case. Alzheimer's disease (Option A) typically presents with memory loss as the primary symptom, rather than speech difficulties. Huntington's disease (Option C) is characterized by motor symptoms like involuntary movements, and Lewy body dementia (Option D) often presents with visual hallucinations and Parkinsonism features, rather than prominent speech issues. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses in psychiatric emergency settings to be able to differentiate between various types of dementia based on presenting symptoms to provide appropriate care and support for patients and their families. Understanding the specific symptomatology of different types of dementia can lead to timely interventions and improved outcomes for patients.
Question 5 of 5
A 65 year old man has a dry cough and progressive shortness of breath for 3 months. He has finger clubbing and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crackles. Which is the most appropriate next investigation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate next investigation for the 65-year-old man with a dry cough, progressive shortness of breath, finger clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crackles is a High resolution CT scan of the chest (Option D). High resolution CT scan of the chest is the most appropriate investigation in this case because it can provide detailed imaging of the lung parenchyma. This will help in identifying any structural abnormalities such as interstitial lung disease, which can present with the symptoms described. It can also reveal the extent and distribution of lung involvement, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning. The other options are not as suitable in this scenario: A) Broncho-alveolar lavage: This procedure is invasive and is usually reserved for specific indications such as suspected infections or malignancies. B) Cardiopulmonary exercise test: This test is more relevant in assessing cardiovascular and pulmonary function during exercise and is not indicated as the next step in this case. C) Echocardiography: While important in assessing cardiac function, it is less likely to provide information regarding the lung parenchyma and is not the most appropriate investigation at this stage. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind choosing the appropriate investigative approach is crucial for nurses working in psychiatric emergency settings. It demonstrates critical thinking skills and clinical reasoning, which are essential for providing quality patient care. By grasping the significance of selecting the most relevant investigation based on the clinical presentation, nurses can contribute effectively to the diagnostic process and subsequent management of patients in psychiatric emergencies.