ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 55-year-old male with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Spironolactone works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking aldosterone receptors. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal convoluted tubules of the kidneys. By inhibiting aldosterone, spironolactone reduces sodium and water retention, decreases potassium excretion, and helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly increase sodium and water excretion in the kidneys, inhibit the action of angiotensin II, or block beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is a common adverse effect of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Osteoporosis. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) can inhibit calcium absorption, potentially leading to osteoporosis. PPIs reduce stomach acid production, increasing the risk of bone fractures. B: Gastritis is incorrect as PPIs are actually used to treat gastritis by reducing stomach acid. C: Weight loss is incorrect as PPIs are not associated with weight loss. D: Hypoglycemia is incorrect as PPIs do not affect blood sugar levels significantly.
Question 3 of 5
A 55-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is prescribed canagliflozin. Canagliflozin works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys. Canagliflozin is a sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor that works by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased urinary glucose excretion and lowering blood glucose levels. This mechanism of action is unique to SGLT2 inhibitors and helps improve glycemic control in patients with type 2 diabetes. Choice B is incorrect because canagliflozin does not stimulate the pancreas to release more insulin. Choice C is incorrect as canagliflozin does not increase the release of glucagon from the pancreas. Choice D is incorrect because canagliflozin does not directly improve insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. The key mechanism of action of canagliflozin lies in its specific inhibition of glucose reabsorption in the kidneys, making choice A the correct answer.
Question 4 of 5
A 50-year-old male with chronic hypertension is prescribed clonidine. Clonidine works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that inhibits the release of norepinephrine in the brainstem. By activating alpha-2 receptors, it reduces sympathetic outflow from the CNS, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and heart rate. This mechanism helps in lowering blood pressure. Summary of other choices: B: Blocking calcium channels would be a mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers, not clonidine. C: Stimulating beta-1 receptors in the heart would increase heart rate and contractility, opposite to clonidine's effects. D: Inhibiting angiotensin converting enzyme is a mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors, not clonidine.
Question 5 of 5
A 65-year-old male with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. Valsartan works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking the action of angiotensin II at its receptor. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which works by specifically blocking the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors, thereby preventing its vasoconstrictive and aldosterone-releasing effects. This leads to vasodilation and reduced sodium and water retention, ultimately lowering blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because valsartan does not inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, increase sodium excretion in the kidneys, or block calcium channels in the blood vessels.