A 55-year-old male with chronic pain is prescribed diclofenac. Diclofenac works primarily by:

Questions 263

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Lifespan Pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 55-year-old male with chronic pain is prescribed diclofenac. Diclofenac works primarily by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of lifespan pharmacology, understanding the mechanism of action of medications is crucial for safe and effective prescribing. In this case, the correct answer is A) Blocking prostaglandin synthesis. Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that exerts its analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic effects by inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), thereby blocking the synthesis of prostaglandins, which are key mediators of pain and inflammation. Option B) Binding to opioid receptors is incorrect because diclofenac is not an opioid medication; it does not directly bind to opioid receptors in the central nervous system. Option C) Inhibiting serotonin reuptake is incorrect because diclofenac does not affect serotonin reuptake like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), which are commonly used as antidepressants. Option D) Increasing dopamine release is incorrect because diclofenac does not directly modulate dopamine release in the brain, which is more relevant to medications used in the treatment of conditions like Parkinson's disease or schizophrenia. Educationally, understanding the mechanism of action of diclofenac not only enhances pharmacological knowledge but also fosters critical thinking skills in clinical decision-making. By comprehending how diclofenac works, healthcare providers can make informed choices about drug selection, dosing, and monitoring for adverse effects, ultimately optimizing patient care and outcomes across the lifespan.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with asthma is prescribed montelukast. Montelukast works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of Lifespan Pharmacology, understanding the mechanism of action of medications is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In the case of montelukast, the correct answer is A) Blocking leukotriene receptors. Leukotrienes are inflammatory mediators that play a key role in asthma by causing bronchoconstriction, mucus production, and airway inflammation. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist, meaning it blocks the action of leukotrienes, thereby reducing inflammation and improving asthma symptoms. Option B) Stimulating beta-2 receptors in the lungs is incorrect because medications that stimulate beta-2 receptors are typically used as bronchodilators in asthma, not leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast. Option C) Inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells is incorrect because this mechanism is associated with antihistamine medications, not leukotriene receptor antagonists. Option D) Increasing the release of acetylcholine in the lungs is incorrect as this action would likely worsen asthma symptoms by promoting bronchoconstriction, which is the opposite effect of what montelukast aims to achieve. In conclusion, understanding the specific mechanisms of action of medications like montelukast is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in treating patients with asthma, highlighting the importance of pharmacology knowledge in clinical practice.

Question 3 of 5

A 75-year-old male with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The mechanism of action of hydrochlorothiazide involves:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of lifespan pharmacology, understanding the mechanism of action of medications is crucial for safe and effective prescribing. In this case, the correct answer is B) Inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that works by inhibiting the sodium-chloride symporter in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. By blocking this transporter, hydrochlorothiazide reduces sodium reabsorption, leading to increased excretion of sodium and water, ultimately decreasing blood volume and lowering blood pressure. Option A) Increasing sodium retention in the kidneys is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide actually promotes sodium excretion. Option C) Blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels is incorrect as this describes the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers, not thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide. Option D) Increasing potassium excretion in the urine is incorrect because while thiazide diuretics can lead to mild potassium loss, their primary mechanism of action is through sodium and water excretion. Educationally, understanding the mechanisms of action of medications like hydrochlorothiazide is essential for healthcare providers to make informed decisions about drug therapy, monitor for potential side effects, and ensure optimal patient outcomes, especially in the elderly population where drug interactions and adverse effects can have significant implications on their health.

Question 4 of 5

Which drug is commonly used to treat type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of Lifespan Pharmacology, understanding the treatment of type 1 diabetes mellitus is crucial. The correct answer is B) Insulin. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by the destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas, leading to an absolute deficiency of insulin. Insulin replacement therapy is the cornerstone of treatment for type 1 diabetes. Metformin (Option A) is commonly used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus, where there is insulin resistance. It works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Glimepiride (Option C) is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin secretion from the beta cells of the pancreas. It is typically used in type 2 diabetes when lifestyle modifications and metformin alone are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels. Acarbose (Option D) is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that delays the absorption of carbohydrates in the intestine, thereby reducing postprandial blood glucose levels. It is mainly used in type 2 diabetes. Educationally, it is important for students to understand the specific mechanisms of action of different drugs used in diabetes treatment to make appropriate therapeutic choices based on the underlying pathophysiology of the disease. This knowledge is essential for providing optimal patient care and avoiding medication errors.

Question 5 of 5

A patient with emphysema is prescribed ipratropium bromide. The primary effect of this medication is to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of lifespan pharmacology, understanding the primary effects of medications is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In the case of ipratropium bromide prescribed for a patient with emphysema, the correct answer is B) Increase airflow to the lungs. Ipratropium bromide is an anticholinergic bronchodilator that works by relaxing the muscles around the airways, leading to an increase in airflow to the lungs. Option A) Decrease heart rate is incorrect because ipratropium bromide primarily affects the lungs and respiratory system, not the cardiovascular system. Option C) Suppress coughing is incorrect as well, although some anticholinergic medications can have this effect, the primary purpose of ipratropium bromide in emphysema is to improve airflow. Option D) Reduce blood pressure is also incorrect as this medication is not primarily used for its effects on blood pressure. Educationally, it's important for students to grasp the specific pharmacological actions of medications to make informed clinical decisions. Understanding the mechanisms of action helps in predicting outcomes, recognizing adverse effects, and ensuring appropriate drug selection for patients with various conditions like emphysema. This knowledge is fundamental for healthcare professionals to provide quality care and optimize patient outcomes in clinical practice.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions