ATI RN
Psychiatric Emergencies Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 54 year old man is unable to grip effectively with his right hand following recovery from a general anaesthetic for bowel surgery. Which is the most likely affected nerve?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the most likely affected nerve is the Radial nerve. The Radial nerve innervates the muscles responsible for extension at the elbow, wrist, and fingers. Following recovery from general anesthesia, a common complication is compression or injury to the Radial nerve, leading to weakness in grip strength. The other options can be ruled out based on their respective innervations and functions: - Axillary nerve: Innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles, not responsible for grip strength. - Median nerve: Innervates muscles of the forearm and hand responsible for flexion, not directly related to grip strength loss. - Musculocutaneous nerve: Innervates the biceps brachii muscle, involved in elbow flexion, not grip strength. Educationally, understanding the innervation and functions of major nerves is crucial in diagnosing and managing neurological deficits postoperatively. This knowledge aids in identifying the specific nerve affected based on the presenting symptoms, guiding appropriate interventions and preventing further complications.
Question 2 of 5
A 64 year old man has retrosternal chest pain for 1 hour and is seen in the Emergency Department. Which is the most appropriate immediate test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of a 64-year-old man presenting with retrosternal chest pain, the most appropriate immediate test is an ECG (Option D). An ECG is crucial in the evaluation of patients with chest pain as it can quickly detect abnormalities indicative of acute coronary syndromes such as ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). An angiogram (Option A) is an invasive procedure used to visualize blood vessels and is typically not the first-line test in the acute setting of chest pain. A chest X-ray (Option B) may help identify other causes of chest pain like pneumonia or pneumothorax but does not provide immediate information on cardiac status. Checking creatine kinase levels (Option C) can aid in diagnosing myocardial infarction but is not as immediate or specific as an ECG in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes. In an educational context, it is important for healthcare providers to understand the significance of prompt and accurate assessment of patients presenting with chest pain, especially in the setting of a potential cardiac emergency. Teaching the appropriate use of diagnostic tests like ECGs can help improve patient outcomes by enabling timely intervention and treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A 75 year old man has attended the Emergency Department with bruising to his forearms and face. Which is the most likely explanation for his bruising?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of psychiatric emergencies, it is crucial to consider the possibility of non-accidental injuries, especially in vulnerable populations like the elderly. The correct answer, B) Non-accidental injury, is the most likely explanation for the bruising in this case. Elder abuse, including physical abuse resulting in bruising, is unfortunately common and often underreported. Option A) Bleeding disorder is less likely in the absence of a history of bleeding tendencies or anticoagulant use. Occult malignancy, option C, typically presents with more generalized symptoms rather than localized bruising. Scurvy, option D, is rare in developed countries and is associated with a deficiency in Vitamin C, which would usually present with additional symptoms like poor wound healing and swollen gums. Educationally, understanding the signs and symptoms of elder abuse, including non-accidental injuries, is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those working in emergency departments or psychiatric settings. Recognizing and addressing such issues promptly can prevent further harm to the patient and ensure their safety and well-being.
Question 4 of 5
A 34 year old woman has had secondary amenorrhoea for 8 months. She has lost 6 kg despite good appetite. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A) Hyperthyroidism. In this case, the woman presents with symptoms such as secondary amenorrhea, weight loss, and increased appetite, which are indicative of hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism can disrupt the normal menstrual cycle and metabolism, leading to weight loss despite increased food intake. Hypogonadism (B) is characterized by decreased or absent gonadal function, leading to hormonal imbalances and menstrual irregularities. However, the symptoms presented in the case are more indicative of hyperthyroidism rather than hypogonadism. Polycystic ovary syndrome (C) typically presents with symptoms such as irregular periods, weight gain, and hormonal imbalances. While weight gain is a common symptom in PCOS, the weight loss described in the case is not consistent with this diagnosis. Premature ovarian failure (D) is characterized by the loss of ovarian function before the age of 40, leading to symptoms such as irregular periods and infertility. While it can cause amenorrhea, the rapid weight loss and increased appetite in the case suggest a different diagnosis. In an educational context, understanding the differential diagnosis of secondary amenorrhea is crucial for healthcare providers, especially in psychiatric emergencies where physical health conditions may manifest with psychiatric symptoms. This case highlights the importance of considering endocrine disorders like hyperthyroidism in the evaluation of menstrual irregularities and weight changes. Healthcare professionals must be able to recognize the subtle differences in symptoms to provide accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Question 5 of 5
A 38 year old woman has red sore eyes with crusting in the morning for 9 days. Which is the most appropriate topical treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate topical treatment for a 38-year-old woman presenting with red sore eyes with crusting in the morning for 9 days is option B) Antibacterial. The rationale behind this choice is that the symptoms described suggest a possible bacterial infection such as bacterial conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye. Antibacterial eye drops or ointment would be the most effective treatment to address the underlying infection. Option A) Anaesthetic is not the best choice in this case because it would only provide symptomatic relief by numbing the eye and would not treat the underlying cause of the symptoms. Similarly, option C) Antiviral would not be appropriate unless there is a confirmed viral infection, which is not indicated based on the symptoms described. Option D) Mydriatic is used to dilate the pupil and would not be the correct choice for treating a bacterial eye infection. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be able to differentiate between various eye conditions and select the most appropriate treatment based on the presenting symptoms. Understanding the indications for different types of eye medications is essential in providing effective care for patients with eye complaints. By choosing the correct treatment, healthcare providers can help alleviate symptoms, promote healing, and prevent potential complications.