ATI RN
Pharmacological Lifespan Treatment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 52-year-old woman complains of dizziness when she looks up or rapidly changes the position of her head. These dizzy spells are often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She complains that these episodes severely limit her ability to work and function normally. Which of the following medications would best help control her symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Meclizine. Meclizine is an antihistamine that is commonly used to treat symptoms of dizziness and motion sickness. In this case, the 52-year-old woman is experiencing dizziness accompanied by nausea and vomiting, suggesting a condition known as vertigo. Meclizine works by blocking histamine receptors in the brain associated with the vestibular system, which helps alleviate symptoms of vertigo. A) Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and chest pain, not dizziness or vertigo. C) Midodrine is a medication used to treat low blood pressure, not dizziness or vertigo. D) Mirtazapine is an antidepressant that may cause dizziness as a side effect but is not a primary treatment for vertigo. In an educational context, it is important for healthcare providers to recognize the symptoms of vertigo and understand the appropriate pharmacological treatments available. Meclizine is a first-line treatment for vertigo and can significantly improve the quality of life for patients experiencing these symptoms. Healthcare professionals should be knowledgeable about the mechanism of action and indications for medications to provide optimal care for patients with vestibular disorders.
Question 2 of 5
A 54-year-old woman with diabetes presents to the clinic for follow-up. On her last two visits, her blood pressure was elevated. She measured her blood pressure at home daily and it was elevated. The physician decides to start her on enalapril. She returns in 1 week with a persistent cough. What causes the cough associated with enalapril?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension. The correct answer is D) Increase in bradykinins. Enalapril inhibits ACE, preventing the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. This leads to decreased angiotensin II levels and increased bradykinin levels. Bradykinins can cause a persistent cough by stimulating the cough reflex in the respiratory tract. Option A) Decrease in aldosterone is incorrect because enalapril does not directly influence aldosterone levels. Option B) Decrease in angiotensin II is incorrect because enalapril indeed decreases angiotensin II levels, but it is the increase in bradykinins that causes the cough, not the decrease in angiotensin II itself. Option C) Increase in angiotensin I is incorrect because enalapril reduces angiotensin I levels as it inhibits its conversion to angiotensin II. Educationally, understanding the side effects of medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to patients. Knowing the mechanism of action of drugs like enalapril and their potential side effects, such as cough in this case, helps in making informed decisions in clinical practice. It also highlights the importance of monitoring patients for adverse reactions and adjusting treatment plans accordingly.
Question 3 of 5
A 26-year-old man presents to an urgent care clinic with a dry cough for the past week. The cough was associated with a fever and chills for 2 days, but he has since been afebrile. He has no other symptoms. What opioid is most appropriate to treat this patient’s cough?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate opioid to treat the patient's cough is option B) Dextromethorphan. Dextromethorphan is a common antitussive medication used to suppress cough by acting on the cough center in the brain. It is effective in treating non-productive cough, which is the case for the patient presenting with a dry cough. Option A) Butorphanol is not commonly used for cough suppression but rather for pain management as an opioid agonist-antagonist. Option C) Diphenoxylate is an opioid used to treat diarrhea, not cough. Option D) Guaifenesin is an expectorant used to help loosen and thin mucus in the airways but does not directly suppress cough. From an educational perspective, understanding the appropriate pharmacological treatment for different symptoms is crucial for healthcare providers to make informed decisions in patient care. Knowing the mechanisms of action and indications for different medications helps ensure effective and safe treatment outcomes. In this case, recognizing the specific use of dextromethorphan for cough suppression aids in providing targeted therapy for the patient's presenting symptom.
Question 4 of 5
A 59-year-old man with a history of recurrent bilateral kidney stones is placed on a medication to decrease calcium excretion. Unfortunately, 3 months after beginning this medication, he develops gout in his right great toe. The most likely explanation of these findings relates to which of the following medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication commonly used to decrease calcium excretion and prevent the formation of kidney stones by reducing urinary calcium levels. However, one of the side effects of hydrochlorothiazide is the elevation of uric acid levels, which can lead to the development of gout. Option A) Furosemide is a loop diuretic that does not typically affect uric acid levels significantly, making it less likely to be the cause of gout in this case. Option C) Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that does not directly impact calcium or uric acid levels, making it an unlikely cause of gout in this scenario. Option D) Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that also does not typically affect uric acid levels, making it less likely to be the culprit behind the development of gout in the patient's right great toe. In an educational context, understanding the side effects of commonly prescribed medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care to their patients. This case highlights the importance of considering potential adverse effects when prescribing medications, especially in patients with comorbidities or a history of specific conditions, such as kidney stones and gout.
Question 5 of 5
A 73-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic with increasing shortness of breath. He has had shortness of breath for many years, but it has been progressively worsening. It is associated with peripheral edema and dry cough. A transthoracic echocardiogram shows pulmonary hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist, is a targeted therapy for pulmonary hypertension, reducing pulmonary vascular resistance and improving symptoms like shortness of breath and edema. Albuterol (a bronchodilator) treats asthma/COPD, not pulmonary hypertension. Guaifenesin (an expectorant) and N-acetylcysteine (a mucolytic) address mucus, not vascular issues. Theophylline (a bronchodilator) is outdated and ineffective for pulmonary hypertension.