ATI RN
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 52-year-old patient has the following diagnosis: systemic amebiasis with involvment of intestines, liver, lungs. What drug should be prescribed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. It is the drug of choice for treating systemic amebiasis due to its high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Metronidazole is well-absorbed, reaches therapeutic levels in the intestines, liver, and lungs, making it effective in treating the multi-organ involvement in this case. Choice B: Quiniofone is not a recommended treatment for amebiasis. Choice C: Tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for systemic amebiasis. Choice D: Quingamine is not a recognized drug for treating amebiasis.
Question 2 of 5
What drug should be administered for individual prevention of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin. Chingamin is a type of antimalarial drug that is commonly used for individual prevention of malaria. It works by targeting the malaria parasite in the body, preventing its growth and spread. Rifampicin (B), Ampicillin (C), and Gentamicin (D) are not effective for preventing malaria as they are antibiotics that target bacterial infections, not parasitic infections like malaria. Therefore, Chingamin is the most appropriate choice for individual prevention of malaria due to its specific antimalarial properties.
Question 3 of 5
A sick man with high temperature and a lot of tiny wounds on the body has been admitted to the hospital. Lice have been found in the folds of his clothing. What disease can be suspected in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epidemic typhus. This disease is caused by the bacterium Rickettsia prowazekii, which is transmitted by body lice. The symptoms include high fever, body rash, and tiny wounds due to scratching. The presence of lice in the clothing suggests a possible lice-borne disease like epidemic typhus. Summary: - B: Tularemia is caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis, transmitted through ticks, deer flies, and contact with infected animals. Lice are not involved in its transmission. - C: Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, leading to itching and skin rashes. It is not associated with high fever or lice infestation. - D: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites, transmitted by infected mosquitoes. The symptoms differ from those described in the scenario, and lice are not involved in its
Question 4 of 5
A sample of a finished dosage form was found to be contaminated with some microorganisms exhibiting the following properties: greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli that grew on the medium for the detection of pyocyanin. The bacilli release the bluegreen pigment into the medium. What microorganisms contaminated the finished dosage form?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacilli that produce pyocyanin, a blue-green pigment. The presence of greenish fluorescent colonies of gram-negative nonsporeforming bacilli that release blue-green pigment matches the characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Now, let's analyze the other choices: B: Enterobacteriaceae - While some Enterobacteriaceae can be gram-negative bacilli, they do not typically produce pyocyanin or exhibit the specific characteristics described in the question. C: Staphylococcus aureus - Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive cocci, not a gram-negative bacilli. It does not match the given description. D: Staphylococcus epidermidis - Staphylococcus epidermidis is also a gram-positive cocci, not a gram-negative bacilli. It does
Question 5 of 5
A 32-year-old patient who lives in the countryside consulted a doctor about a painful swelling and a fistula in the submandibular region. Examination revealed an infiltration with a fistula discharging thick pus and containing white granules. On dissection the infiltration tissues turned out to be dense, yellow-green and had honeycomb structure because of multiple abscesses. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Actinomycosis. This is because the patient's presentation of a painful swelling with a fistula containing white granules and yellow-green honeycomb-like tissue is classic for Actinomycosis. Actinomyces is a gram-positive anaerobic bacterium that forms sulfur granules in tissues. Tuberculosis (B) typically presents with caseating granulomas, not sulfur granules. Leprosy (C) presents with skin lesions and nerve damage, not characteristic of this case. Syphilis (D) usually presents with painless ulcers and rash, not the painful swelling and fistula seen in this patient.