A 52-year-old overweight male steamroller operator presents to his primary care physician complaining of itchy, watery eyes and runny nose in the springtime. He says that he has had this problem for as long as he can remember but does not like going to doctors. His wife finally convinced him to come today to see what his physician might be able to do for him. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

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ATI VATI Pharmacology Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 52-year-old overweight male steamroller operator presents to his primary care physician complaining of itchy, watery eyes and runny nose in the springtime. He says that he has had this problem for as long as he can remember but does not like going to doctors. His wife finally convinced him to come today to see what his physician might be able to do for him. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The patient's chronic springtime symptoms-itchy, watery eyes, and runny nose-point to seasonal allergic rhinitis, a histamine-driven condition. Albuterol is a bronchodilator for asthma, not allergies. Diphenhydramine is an H1 antihistamine, effective but sedating, which may not suit an active steamroller operator. Epinephrine is for acute anaphylaxis, not chronic allergies. Hydroxyzine is another sedating antihistamine, less ideal for daily use. Loratadine (E), a non-sedating H1 antihistamine, effectively blocks histamine receptors, relieving symptoms without drowsiness, making it the most appropriate choice. Given his occupation and chronicity, a non-sedating option is critical for safety and compliance. Loratadine's long-acting, once-daily dosing also fits his reluctance to seek medical care, offering convenience and efficacy. The rationale prioritizes a treatment balancing symptom relief with minimal impact on his daily function, ruling out sedating or irrelevant options.

Question 2 of 5

A 22-year-old man college student does poorly on a course examination and decides to attempt suicide. He finds a bottle of barbiturates in his mother's medicine cabinet. He takes 2 of the 30 pills in the bottle. Which of the following effects is most likely to be exhibited by the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.

Question 3 of 5

Which one of the following statements about lithium is accurate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Lithium, used for bipolar disorder, stabilizes mood via inositol depletion and other mechanisms. It can cause hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism, by inhibiting thyroid hormone release. High sodium intake increases lithium excretion, lowering plasma levels, not raising them. Common adverse effects include acne (sebaceous gland stimulation), polydipsia, and polyuria (due to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from ADH antagonism), affecting many patients and requiring monitoring. Teratogenicity concerns focus on Ebstein's anomaly (cardiac defect), not spina bifida, though risks are low with modern management. Sedation isn't rapid; therapeutic effects take days to weeks. The constellation of acne, polydipsia, and polyuria reflects lithium's broad physiological impact, making it the most accurate description of its side effect profile.

Question 4 of 5

A patient has taken two doses of interferon Alfa-2b (Intron-A). He comes to the clinic today with the following complaints. Which symptoms would the nurse identify as common adverse effects of this therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Interferon Alfa-2b is an immunomodulatory drug used for conditions like hepatitis or cancer, known for causing flu-like symptoms and systemic effects. Common adverse effects include dizziness, fatigue, and anorexia (loss of appetite), as listed in the correct answer (1, 3, 4). Dizziness reflects the drug's impact on the central nervous system, often reported early in therapy. Loss of appetite and fatigue are also hallmark symptoms due to interferon's influence on metabolism and energy levels. An itchy rash , while possible as a hypersensitivity reaction, is less commonly associated with interferon compared to these systemic effects. The nurse must recognize these as expected side effects, distinguishing them from severe reactions requiring intervention. Since the question asks for common adverse effects and the correct answer includes multiple symptoms, choice A (dizziness) is a key identifier among them, supported by its prevalence in clinical use, making it the primary focus here.

Question 5 of 5

Discharge planning for the client prescribed tetracycline will include which instruction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tetracycline, a broad-spectrum antibiotic, requires specific administration instructions to ensure efficacy. It binds to divalent cations like calcium (in milk), magnesium (in antacids), and iron (in supplements), forming insoluble chelates that reduce absorption, rendering it ineffective. The instruction 'Do not take the medication with milk' is critical to avoid this interaction, ensuring therapeutic levels are achieved. Taking it with antacids or iron similarly impairs absorption, making these incorrect and potentially harmful suggestions. Decreasing vitamins is irrelevant, as vitamins don't typically interfere unless combined with minerals. This guidance aligns with tetracycline's pharmacokinetics, emphasizing timing away from meals or supplements containing these ions. Effective discharge teaching prevents treatment failure, especially for infections requiring consistent drug levels, making C the priority instruction for the client's understanding and adherence.

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