A 52-year-old man with organic impotence is in the preoperative holding area before surgery. He is given intravenous vancomycin over 20 min and begins to develop fever, chills, and redness at the injection site. What is the most appropriate course of action for the physician to take?

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Pharmacology Final ATI Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 52-year-old man with organic impotence is in the preoperative holding area before surgery. He is given intravenous vancomycin over 20 min and begins to develop fever, chills, and redness at the injection site. What is the most appropriate course of action for the physician to take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Vancomycin's rapid infusion causes red man syndrome (fever, chills, redness) is discontinue . Anticholinesterase is irrelevant. Corticosteroids treat severe reactions, not initial step. Intubation is excessive. Slowing infusion (E) is preventive, not reactive. Stopping vancomycin halts histamine release, resolving symptoms.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is taking nitrofurantoin. What will the nurse teach the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct teaching for a patient taking oral nitrofurantoin is to rinse the mouth after taking the medication to avoid staining the teeth. Nitrofurantoin can cause a harmless but noticeable side effect of staining the teeth, so it is important for the patient to rinse their mouth thoroughly after each dose to reduce the risk of this happening. The other options provided are not accurate teachings related to nitrofurantoin.

Question 3 of 5

A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina. This type of angina, also known as variant angina, typically occurs at rest and is due to coronary artery spasm, rather than the typical obstruction of blood flow seen in classic angina. The chest pain in Prinzmetal™s angina is often relieved by medications that dilate the blood vessels, such as nitroglycerin, as described by the patient. This distinguishes it from classic angina, which is typically triggered by exertion or emotional stress. Unstable angina, on the other hand, is characterized by chest pain that occurs unpredictably, even at rest and may signal an impending heart attack.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is providing instructions to a client receiving baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following would be included in the teaching plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Baclofen is a muscle relaxant used to treat spasticity. Weakness is a potential side effect and should be reported to the physician, as it may indicate an adverse reaction or the need for dose adjustment. Limiting fluid intake is not typically recommended, and holding the medication due to diarrhea is not a standard instruction. While alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of baclofen, the primary concern is monitoring for weakness, which could impact the patient's safety and mobility.

Question 5 of 5

Which explanation best indicates why barbiturates are rarely used to treat anxiety and insomnia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Barbiturates (e.g., phenobarbital) cause serious adverse effects-respiratory depression, dependence-limiting use versus safer options like benzos, per pharmacology. Cost isn't higher. Allergies aren't notable. They're effective but risky. Side effects drive rarity, a safety shift.

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