ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 52-year-old man undergoes three surgical procedures in a 2-week period involving debridement of a deep skin abscess. Each surgical anesthesia procedure involves the use of halothane. Which of the following pathologic processes is possible as a result of the surgical procedures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Repeated halothane anesthesia risks hepatic necrosis . Halothane, a halogenated anesthetic, can cause hepatitis or necrosis, especially with multiple exposures, due to toxic metabolites. Cholelithiasis , kidney stones , steatorrhea , and tinnitus (E) aren't linked. Hepatic necrosis, though rare, is a documented risk, particularly in short-interval surgeries, making it the plausible complication here.
Question 2 of 5
A 44-year-old man who is a chronic smoker and takes bupropion takes 10 pills at once in an attempted suicide. Which of the following effects is possible as a result of this overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following antipsychotic agents may have the best chance to improve his apathy and blunted affect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Risperidone, a second-generation antipsychotic, blocks D2 and 5HT2 receptors, improving positive symptoms (hallucinations) and, to some extent, negative symptoms like apathy and blunted affect, common in schizophrenia's prodrome. First-generation agents—chlorpromazine, fluphenazine, haloperidol—target D2 receptors, effectively reducing positive symptoms but often worsening negative symptoms via dopamine blockade in the prefrontal cortex. Thioridazine, also first-generation, has similar limitations. Risperidone's serotonin antagonism may enhance prefrontal dopamine release, offering a modest edge in addressing negative symptoms, supported by studies, making it preferable for this adolescent's presentation.
Question 4 of 5
The client receives albuterol (Proventil) via inhaler. He asks the nurse why he can't just take a pill. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol, a bronchodilator for asthma or COPD, is inhaled to target lung airways directly. Choice A explains that inhalation allows rapid absorption via the lungs' rich blood supply, providing quicker relief (within minutes) compared to oral pills, which undergo slower gastrointestinal absorption. Choice B falsely claims pills can't help; oral bronchodilators exist but act slower. Choice C exaggerates side effect differences; inhaled albuterol minimizes systemic effects, but pills aren't inherently riskier. Choice D oversimplifies efficacy without context. The nurse's best response (A) accurately addresses the patient's question with pharmacokinetic reasoning, enhancing understanding and compliance.
Question 5 of 5
The client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) for induction of labor. Which assessment finding will most likely result in the nurse stopping the infusion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.