ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges. A non-mobile mass with irregular edges is more likely to be cancerous as it indicates potential infiltration into surrounding tissues. This finding raises suspicion for malignancy as cancerous lumps tend to have irregular shapes due to their invasive nature. In contrast, options A and B describe characteristics of benign masses, such as mobile, soft, and easily delineated. Option D indicates no palpable lymph nodes, which does not directly correlate with the characteristics of the breast lump. Therefore, option C is the most concerning and indicative of a potentially cancerous lesion based on the assessment findings provided.
Question 2 of 5
The LPN is caring for a patient in the preoperative period who, even after verbalizing concerns and having questions answered, states, “I know I am not going to wake up after surgery.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inform the registered nurse. This is the best course of action as the LPN should escalate the situation to a higher level of care by involving the registered nurse who can further assess the patient's concerns and provide appropriate interventions. A. Reassuring the patient may not address the underlying fear and may not be sufficient to alleviate their anxiety. B. Providing statistics about surgery death rates may further escalate the patient's fears and anxiety, causing more harm than good. D. Involving the family to comfort the patient may not address the patient's specific concerns and may not be within the family's scope of understanding or expertise to effectively address the situation. Informing the registered nurse allows for a more comprehensive assessment and appropriate intervention to address the patient's fears and concerns in a holistic manner.
Question 3 of 5
The primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Pulmonary edema is caused by fluid accumulation in the lungs due to increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature. Step 2: Decreased left ventricular pumping leads to congestive heart failure, causing increased pressure in pulmonary circulation. Step 3: This increased pressure forces fluid from the capillaries into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema. Step 4: Increased left atrial contractility (B) would not directly lead to pulmonary edema. Step 5: Decreased right ventricular elasticity (C) and increased right atrial pressure (D) are not directly related to the pathophysiology of pulmonary edema. Summary: The correct answer is A because decreased left ventricular pumping directly contributes to the increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation that leads to pulmonary edema. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema.
Question 4 of 5
For a patient receiving furosemide, the nurse evaluates the medication as being effective if which of the following effects occurs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output increased. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, thus helping to reduce fluid volume in the body. This effect is crucial in managing conditions like heart failure and edema. Increased urine output indicates that the medication is working as intended. Choice B: Heart rate increased is incorrect as furosemide does not directly affect heart rate. Choice C: Serum potassium decreased is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, but this is not the primary indicator of its effectiveness. Choice D: Pulse pressure increased is incorrect as furosemide does not typically impact pulse pressure.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse understands that which of the ff. best describes the action of enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate