A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges. A non-mobile mass with irregular edges is more likely to be cancerous as it indicates potential infiltration into surrounding tissues. This finding raises suspicion for malignancy as cancerous lumps tend to have irregular shapes due to their invasive nature. In contrast, options A and B describe characteristics of benign masses, such as mobile, soft, and easily delineated. Option D indicates no palpable lymph nodes, which does not directly correlate with the characteristics of the breast lump. Therefore, option C is the most concerning and indicative of a potentially cancerous lesion based on the assessment findings provided.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is essential for the production of red blood cells, and its deficiency can lead to pernicious anemia, characterized by decreased red blood cell production. Without adequate vitamin B12, the body cannot properly utilize iron, leading to anemia. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is a result of insufficient iron levels, not vitamin B12 deficiency. Sickle cell anemia (choice B) is a genetic disorder affecting hemoglobin, not related to vitamin B12 deficiency. Acquired haemolytic anemia (choice D) is caused by the premature destruction of red blood cells, not by vitamin B12 deficiency.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pericardial friction rub. This is a key diagnostic sign of pericarditis due to the inflammation of the pericardial layers causing a rough, grating sound heard upon auscultation. Precordial pain (A) is a common symptom but not a specific diagnostic sign. Hypotension (C) and rapid/labored respirations (D) are not typically associated with pericarditis. Therefore, the presence of a pericardial friction rub is crucial in confirming the diagnosis of pericarditis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. First, the nurse should assess the chest-drainage system and tubing for any air leaks. Air leaks can cause bubbling in the water-seal chamber, indicating a potential issue with the system's integrity. By examining the entire system, the nurse can identify and correct any leaks to ensure proper functioning of the chest-drainage system. Lowering the level of suction (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of air leaks. Doing nothing (choice C) is not appropriate as vigorous bubbling indicates a problem. Asking the patient to cough forcefully (choice D) is unrelated to addressing bubbling in the water-seal chamber.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children due to their growing bones. Instead, it is used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - A: Correct - Buck's extension traction is indeed used temporarily in adults to control muscle spasm and pain. - B: Correct - Buck's extension traction is applied by an orthopedic surgeon under aseptic conditions using wires and pins. - C: Correct - The pulling force in Buck's extension traction is indeed transmitted to the musculoskeletal structures. Therefore, the incorrect option is D as Buck's extension traction is not used definitively to treat fractures in children.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct choice is A: 18 gauge IV cannula for blood transfusion. Larger gauge allows for faster flow rate, crucial for transfusions to prevent clotting. 24, 22, and 28 gauge cannulas are too small for adequate blood flow, leading to potential complications like hemolysis or slowed infusion.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. Rationale: 1. Latex condoms create a physical barrier that helps prevent the exchange of bodily fluids containing HIV. 2. Spermicide can further reduce the risk of HIV transmission by killing some viruses and bacteria. 3. Research shows that consistent and correct use of condoms is highly effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - A: Unprotected sex between HIV-positive individuals can lead to the transmission of drug-resistant strains or different strains of HIV. - C: Contraceptive methods like birth control pills do not protect against HIV transmission. - D: The intrauterine device is not specifically recommended for clients with HIV due to potential risks of infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves comparing data with other sources to ensure accuracy. This process checks for errors, inconsistencies, and completeness in the data. By comparing data with other sources, nurses can verify the reliability and correctness of the information. Choice A is incorrect because data validation typically occurs after data collection and before data interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because validation is about ensuring data accuracy, not about professional standards. Choice D is incorrect because data interpretation focuses on analyzing and making sense of the data, not on professional standards or validation processes.