A 50-year-old woman reports that she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. The nurse suspects that she is in the peri-menopausal stage. What is the primary reason for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: I must clarify that the correct answer should be A: Decreased estrogen levels. In the peri-menopausal stage, a woman's ovaries produce less estrogen, leading to symptoms like hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. Option B is incorrect because increased estrogen levels are not typical during peri-menopause. Option C is vague and does not specifically address the primary reason for the symptoms. Option D, psychological stress, may exacerbate symptoms but is not the primary cause in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Salts. During filtration in the kidneys, salts (such as sodium, potassium, and chloride) are removed from the blood to maintain proper electrolyte balance. Carbon dioxide (A) is primarily eliminated through respiration, not filtration by the kidneys. Oxygen (C) is essential for cellular respiration and is not typically removed by the kidneys. Red blood cells (D) are not filtered out by the kidneys unless there is a medical condition affecting the kidneys' function. Thus, the correct answer is B as salts are one of the key substances removed during kidney filtration to regulate electrolyte levels in the body.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Proximal convoluted tubule. ADH acts on the collecting duct and distal convoluted tubule to increase water reabsorption. However, the majority of water reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule due to its high permeability to water. This segment reabsorbs about 65% of filtered water, mainly through osmosis. The loop of Henle plays a crucial role in concentrating urine, but it is not the main site of water reabsorption. The collecting duct responds to ADH but reabsorbs a smaller fraction of filtered water compared to the proximal tubule. The distal convoluted tubule is primarily involved in electrolyte reabsorption rather than water reabsorption.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absent testes. In a full-term newborn male, the absence of testes is a concerning finding that requires immediate investigation to rule out conditions like undescended testes or any underlying genetic abnormalities. This is crucial for ensuring normal development and future fertility. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Meatus centered at the tip of the penis is a normal finding in a full-term newborn. C: Wrinkled scrotum is a common and normal variation in newborns and does not typically require immediate investigation. D: Penis 2 to 3 cm in length is within the expected range for a full-term newborn and is not a cause for concern.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Nystatin is the correct choice for monilial diarrhea: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida species causing monilial infections. 2. It works by binding to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, disrupting membrane integrity and causing cell death. 3. Nystatin is not absorbed systemically, making it suitable for gastrointestinal infections. 4. Amphothericin B is reserved for severe systemic fungal infections due to its significant toxicity. Ketoconazole and Itraconazole are not typically used for gastrointestinal Candida infections, as they are more commonly used for systemic fungal infections.