ATI RN
Physical Examination and Health Assessment 8th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 50-year-old realtor comes to your office for evaluation of neck pain. She was in a motor vehicle collision 2 days ago and was assessed by the emergency medical technicians on site, but she didn't think that she needed to go to the emergency room at that time. Now, she has severe pain and stiffness in her neck. On physical examination, you note pain and spasm over the paraspinous muscles on the left side of the neck, and pain when you make the patient do active range of motion of the cervical spine. What is the most likely cause of this neck pain?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most likely cause of neck pain in this scenario is a cervical sprain. A cervical sprain is an injury to the ligaments in the neck as a result of sudden force or trauma, such as a motor vehicle collision. The symptoms of a cervical sprain typically include pain, stiffness in the neck, and muscle spasm. The fact that the patient has pain and spasm over the paraspinous muscles on one side of the neck, along with pain during active range of motion, is characteristic of a sprain. It is important to consider this diagnosis in individuals who have recently experienced trauma to the neck region. Treatment for a cervical sprain usually includes pain management, rest, and gentle stretching exercises to help with recovery.
Question 2 of 9
Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are essentially normal. Inspection of her anterior and posterior chest shows no abnormalities. On auscultation of her chest, there is decreased air movement and a high-pitched whistling on expiration in all lobes. Percussion reveals resonant lungs. Which disorder of the thorax or lung does this best describe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described, including decreased air movement, high-pitched whistling (wheezing) on expiration in all lobes, and resonant lungs on percussion, are characteristic findings of asthma. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucus production, leading to symptoms like wheezing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and cough. The presence of wheezing, particularly on expiration, is a classic sign of asthma. In contrast, spontaneous pneumothorax would typically present with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, accompanied by hyperresonant percussion notes due to trapped air in the pleural space. COPD, a chronic lung condition characterized by progressive airflow limitation, would often present with symptoms such as chronic cough, sputum production, and dyspnea on exertion. Pneumonia is an infection of the lung tissue,
Question 3 of 9
The following information is best placed in which category? "The patient has had three cesarean sections."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The information provided, specifically about the patient having three cesarean sections, is most appropriate to be placed under the Obstetrics/gynecology category. This category focuses on the healthcare of women, particularly during pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum period, which includes details about cesarean sections. This information is not related to adult illnesses, surgeries in general, or psychiatric conditions.
Question 4 of 9
A 30-year-old paralegal analyst comes to your clinic, complaining of a bad-smelling vaginal discharge with some mild itching, present for about 3 weeks. She tried douching but it did not help. She has had no pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. She has noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of one spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is married and has one child. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died from a heart disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. On examination of the perineum there are no lesions noted. On palpation of the inguinal nodes there is no lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination a thin gray-white discharge is seen in the vault. The pH of the discharge is over 5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled borders (clue cells). What type of vaginitis best describes her findings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The clinical presentation described in the scenario is classic for bacterial vaginosis (BV). BV is the most common cause of vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age. Key features of BV include a thin gray-white discharge with a fishy odor, which typically worsens after sexual intercourse and during menstruation. The discharge characteristically has a pH over 4.5, and the presence of clue cells on wet prep is diagnostic. Clue cells are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, giving them a stippled appearance when viewed under the microscope. These features are consistent with the findings in this patient.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Martin is a 72-year-old smoker who comes to you for his hypertension visit. You note that with deep palpation you feel a pulsatile mass which is about 4 centimeters in diameter. What should you do next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The presence of a palpable pulsatile abdominal mass in a patient like Mr. Martin, who is a smoker and at risk for vascular diseases, is concerning for an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Immediate referral to a vascular surgeon is essential for further evaluation and management. AAA can be a life-threatening condition if left untreated, as it can lead to rupture and severe internal bleeding. Therefore, prompt specialist evaluation and monitoring are crucial in such cases. Waiting for 3 or 6 months for reevaluation could potentially lead to a delayed diagnosis and increase the risk of complications. Abdominal ultrasound is typically the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the presence and size of the aneurysm.
Question 6 of 9
A 25-year-old type 1 diabetic clerk presents to the emergency room with shortness of breath and states that his blood sugar was 605 at home. You diagnose the patient with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the expected pattern of breathing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body is in a state of metabolic acidosis due to the accumulation of ketones in the blood. One of the compensatory mechanisms to decrease the acidity in the body is increased breathing, known as Kussmaul breathing. This type of breathing is characterized by a rapid and deep pattern to blow off excess carbon dioxide and decrease the acidity of the blood. Therefore, in a patient with DKA, you would expect to observe rapid and deep breathing.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye. Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of visual acuity, the numbers in the ratio 20/100 represent a comparison between the patient's vision and normal vision. Specifically, a visual acuity of 20/100 means that the patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 100 feet. This indicates that the patient's vision is reduced, as she needs to be closer to see the same level of detail compared to someone with normal vision.
Question 8 of 9
You note a painful ulcerative lesion near the medial malleolus, with accompanying hyperpigmentation. Which of the following etiologies is most likely?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Venous insufficiency is the most likely etiology for the painful ulcerative lesion near the medial malleolus with accompanying hyperpigmentation. Venous insufficiency can lead to the development of venous stasis ulcers, which typically occur on the lower extremities, especially around the ankle area. These ulcers are often painful and associated with swelling, hyperpigmentation, and a weeping or moist wound bed. The location of the ulcer near the medial malleolus is also characteristic of venous insufficiency-related ulcers. Arterial insufficiency would typically present with different clinical findings, such as a pale, cool extremity, decreased pulses, and hair loss. Neuropathic ulcers are usually painless due to the loss of sensation, and trauma would have a different appearance than the described findings.
Question 9 of 9
Which is true of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Prostate cancer is more prevalent in certain ethnic groups, with African-American men having the highest risk of developing prostate cancer compared to men of other ethnicities. Additionally, men of Caribbean and West African descent also have an increased risk compared to men of Asian descent. This indicates that ethnicity plays a role in the risk of developing prostate cancer.