A 50-year-old male with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. Amlodipine works by:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, specifically blocking calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels. By inhibiting calcium entry into cells, it reduces muscle contraction and dilates blood vessels, leading to decreased blood pressure. This mechanism is effective in treating hypertension. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Inhibiting norepinephrine reuptake is related to antidepressants, not amlodipine. C: Stimulating beta-1 adrenergic receptors would increase heart rate and contractility, opposite of amlodipine's effects. D: Inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys is a mechanism of diuretics, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. Tramadol is a centrally acting opioid analgesic that primarily works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. This mechanism helps to increase the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain, leading to pain relief. Choice B is incorrect because tramadol is not a direct opioid agonist. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does not inhibit acetylcholine. Choice D is incorrect as tramadol does not primarily inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is a key feature of asthma pathophysiology. It inhibits the inflammatory response, decreases mucus production, and improves lung function. Choice A is incorrect because blocking leukotriene receptors is the mechanism of action of leukotriene receptor antagonists, not fluticasone. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating beta-2 receptors is the mechanism of action of beta-2 agonists like albuterol, not fluticasone. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells is the mechanism of antihistamines, not corticosteroids like fluticasone.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Celecoxib. Celecoxib is commonly used for osteoarthritis pain as it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps reduce inflammation and pain. It specifically targets the COX-2 enzyme, which is involved in the inflammatory process in osteoarthritis. Methotrexate (A) is used for rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis. Acetaminophen (B) is a mild pain reliever and is commonly used for osteoarthritis pain, but not as frequently as NSAIDs like celecoxib. Prednisone (D) is a corticosteroid that may be used for short-term relief of osteoarthritis symptoms but is not typically the first-line treatment due to potential side effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that can potentially increase blood pressure. In patients with hypertension, this can lead to further elevation of blood pressure and potentially worsen the condition. Therefore, hypertension is a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A: Diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. C: Hypotension is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy. D: Chronic bronchitis is not a contraindication for albuterol inhalation therapy.