A 50-year-old male has a non-tender, enlarged scrotum. The nurse practitioner suspects which of the following conditions:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hydrocele. A hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac surrounding the testicle, causing scrotal enlargement without tenderness. Orchitis (A) is inflammation of the testicle, presenting with pain and tenderness. Epididymitis (B) is inflammation of the epididymis, also causing tenderness. Prostatitis (D) involves inflammation of the prostate gland, not related to scrotal enlargement. In this case, the lack of tenderness and presence of scrotal enlargement point towards a hydrocele as the likely condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Bupropion. Bupropion is known to potentially cause false-positive results for amphetamines on drug screens due to its structural similarity to amphetamines. Bupropion is a medication commonly used to treat depression and aid in smoking cessation. Metformin (A), Lisinopril (B), and Glyburide (C) are not known to cause false positives for amphetamines. Metformin is used to treat diabetes, Lisinopril is used for hypertension, and Glyburide is used for diabetes. Therefore, the most likely medication cause for a false positive result for amphetamines in this case would be bupropion.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Functional incontinence is the correct answer. This occurs when a person has physical or cognitive impairments that prevent them from reaching the toilet in time. In Alzheimer's disease, the patient's cognitive decline may impede their ability to recognize the need to urinate or navigate to the restroom. Overflow incontinence is due to bladder overdistention, urge incontinence is characterized by a sudden and overwhelming urge to urinate, and stress incontinence is associated with physical activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure. Hence, in this scenario, functional incontinence aligns with the patient's inability to reach the toilet promptly due to their Alzheimer's disease-related cognitive limitations.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because varicose veins are usually diagnosed based on clinical presentation, such as visible, bulging veins and symptoms like pain or swelling. This is because varicose veins are often easily visible and cause noticeable symptoms. A: Varicose veins are not typically due to congenital valve deformities but rather develop over time due to weakened vein walls and valves. C: Varicose veins can be affected by pregnancy due to hormonal changes and increased pressure on the veins. D: Varicose veins may not necessarily be more symptomatic during ovulation; symptoms can vary based on individual factors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Retirement. Retirement is not a known risk factor for suicide in the elderly. Here's the rationale: 1. Chronic pain (choice A) and comorbid physical illness (choice B) are risk factors as they can contribute to feelings of hopelessness and despair. 2. Family history of suicide (choice C) is a significant risk factor due to the genetic and environmental influences. 3. Retirement (choice D) does not directly increase the risk of suicide. In fact, many individuals find purpose and fulfillment in retirement.