A 50-year-old female with diabetes is prescribed liraglutide. Liraglutide works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhibiting glucagon release from the pancreas. Liraglutide is a glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonist that stimulates insulin secretion and inhibits glucagon release, leading to improved blood glucose control. Increased insulin secretion (Choice A) is not the primary mechanism of action for liraglutide. Liraglutide does not directly affect renal glucose excretion (Choice C) or block glucose absorption in the intestine (Choice D). Inhibiting glucagon release is crucial in lowering blood glucose levels in patients with diabetes by reducing hepatic glucose output.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). ARBs work by specifically targeting and blocking the angiotensin II receptors, thus preventing angiotensin II from exerting its vasoconstrictive effects. This leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. A: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, not by blocking the effects of angiotensin II directly. B: Calcium channel blockers work by blocking calcium channels, not specifically targeting angiotensin II receptors. D: Beta-blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline, not angiotensin II. In summary, the correct answer, ARBs, directly targets angiotensin II receptors to lower blood pressure, while the other choices work through different mechanisms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking angiotensin II receptors. Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that works by specifically blocking the angiotensin II receptor type 1 (AT1) receptors. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its action at the receptor level, losartan helps dilate blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. This mechanism is specific to ARBs and distinguishes them from other classes of antihypertensive medications. Choice B: Inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine is incorrect as this mechanism is associated with drugs like tricyclic antidepressants and not losartan. Choice C: Blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels is incorrect as this mechanism is associated with calcium channel blockers like amlodipine, not losartan. Choice D: Inhibiting aldosterone secretion is incorrect as this mechanism is associated with drugs like

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bupropion inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine. This leads to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain, which can help alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action is well-documented in pharmacology and supported by clinical studies. Other choices are incorrect because bupropion does not primarily affect serotonin reuptake, block serotonin receptors, or increase the release of acetylcholine in the brain.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation. Opioid medications slow down gut motility, leading to constipation. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the movement of food and stool. This commonly results in constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nausea and vomiting, increased appetite, and dehydration are not common side effects specifically associated with opioid medications.