A 50-year-old female with chronic asthma is prescribed fluticasone. Fluticasone works by:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which helps to control asthma symptoms. Corticosteroids like fluticasone target the underlying inflammation in asthma, leading to decreased airway swelling and mucus production. This helps to improve airflow and reduce asthma symptoms over time. Choice A is incorrect as histamine release inhibition is typically targeted by antihistamines, not corticosteroids like fluticasone. Choice B is incorrect because leukotriene receptor blockers target a different pathway in asthma treatment. Choice D is incorrect as bronchodilation, or relaxing bronchial smooth muscle, is typically achieved by bronchodilator medications like beta-agonists, not corticosteroids.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epinephrine. Epinephrine is the most commonly used medication for treating acute anaphylaxis due to its rapid onset of action and ability to reverse severe allergic reactions. It works by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Diphenhydramine (B) is an antihistamine that can help with mild allergic reactions but is not as effective as epinephrine for anaphylaxis. Albuterol (C) is a bronchodilator used for asthma and may help with airway constriction in some cases of anaphylaxis, but it is not the first-line treatment. Prednisone (D) is a corticosteroid that can help reduce inflammation but is not fast-acting enough for the immediate treatment of anaphylaxis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, which works by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure. By inhibiting its production, lisinopril helps dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and improve blood flow. This mechanism is crucial in managing hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, block beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart to reduce heart rate and blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect because while lisinopril does relax vascular smooth muscle, the primary mechanism is through angiotensin II inhibition. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril does not directly affect sodium excretion in the kidneys; instead, it primarily targets the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to regulate blood

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Amlodipine works by blocking calcium channels in the blood vessels, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance. This results in reduced blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine do not inhibit norepinephrine reuptake (B), stimulate beta-1 adrenergic receptors (C), or increase sodium excretion in the kidneys (D). These mechanisms are associated with other classes of medications.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Warfarin. Warfarin is a commonly used anticoagulant that helps prevent thromboembolic events in atrial fibrillation by inhibiting the clotting factors. It is recommended for patients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke. Heparin is typically used for acute treatment, not long-term prevention. Aspirin and clopidogrel are antiplatelet agents, not anticoagulants, and are less effective in preventing thromboembolic events in atrial fibrillation.