A 50-year-old female with asthma is prescribed albuterol. Albuterol works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stimulating beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs. Albuterol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, which means it binds to and activates beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs. By stimulating these receptors, albuterol causes smooth muscle relaxation, leading to bronchodilation and improved airflow in the lungs. This mechanism of action is beneficial in treating asthma by relieving bronchospasms and symptoms of shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol does not inhibit histamine release from mast cells. Choice C is incorrect as albuterol does not increase acetylcholine release in the lungs; in fact, it has the opposite effect by promoting bronchodilation. Choice D is incorrect as albuterol does not block leukotriene receptors; leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast are used for that purpose.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Colchicine. Colchicine is used to treat acute gout attacks by reducing inflammation in affected joints. It works by decreasing the inflammatory response caused by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints. Colchicine is not used for long-term prevention of gout attacks like Allopurinol, which is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that lowers uric acid levels. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can be used to reduce inflammation in gout but is not the first-line treatment. Furosemide is a diuretic used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension, not gout.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys. Dapagliflozin is a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor, which prevents the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased glucose excretion in the urine. This mechanism helps lower blood sugar levels in patients with diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dapagliflozin does not directly impact insulin sensitivity, insulin secretion, or incretin hormone breakdown. It primarily acts on the kidneys to reduce blood glucose levels.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Clopidogrel (Choice C) because it is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation, preventing blood clots. Aspirin (Choice A) also inhibits platelet aggregation but is not as specific as Clopidogrel. Warfarin (Choice B) is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the synthesis of clotting factors, not platelet aggregation. Enoxaparin (Choice D) is a low molecular weight heparin that works by inhibiting clot formation through a different mechanism than platelet aggregation. Therefore, Clopidogrel is the most appropriate choice for preventing blood clots by targeting platelet aggregation specifically.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Chlorthalidone is a thiazide diuretic that works by acting on the distal convoluted tubule of the kidneys to inhibit sodium reabsorption. This leads to increased excretion of sodium and water, resulting in decreased blood volume and reduced blood pressure. Blocking calcium channels (B) is the mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers, not thiazide diuretics. Thiazide diuretics do not directly inhibit the action of aldosterone (C), which is a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium balance. Thiazides can cause potassium loss, but they do not directly increase the excretion of potassium (D).