Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Physical Assessment Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company. He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months. You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever. He says he is classified as "high risk" because of obesity. What should you do next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Since the life insurance company is classifying the body builder as "high risk" due to obesity, it is important to assess whether his weight gain is primarily fat accumulation around the waist. Measuring his waist circumference can provide valuable information about the distribution of body fat. Abdominal obesity, indicated by an increased waist measurement, is a significant risk factor for health issues such as heart disease, diabetes, and metabolic syndrome. By measuring his waist, you can determine if his weight gain is indeed a cause for concern in terms of health risks, rather than just considering the overall weight gain. This information can help you provide more targeted advice on how to address any potential health concerns related to the weight gain.

Question 2 of 5

A 68-year-old mechanic presents to the emergency room for shortness of breath. You are concerned about a cardiac cause and measure his jugular venous pressure (JVP). It is elevated. Which one of the following conditions is a potential cause of elevated JVP?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Constrictive pericarditis is a condition where the pericardium becomes thickened and rigid, impairing diastolic filling of the heart. This leads to an increase in venous pressure, including the jugular venous pressure (JVP). The elevated JVP in constrictive pericarditis is a result of impaired ventricular filling rather than forward failure seen in heart failure. Mitral stenosis can lead to an increased JVP due to elevated left atrial pressure, but constrictive pericarditis is a more common cause of elevated JVP in this scenario. Aortic aneurysm is not typically associated with elevated JVP.

Question 3 of 5

Mrs. Hill is a 28-year-old African-American with a history of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus). She has noticed a raised, dark red rash on her legs. When you press on the rash, it doesn't blanch. What would you tell her regarding her rash?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The raised, dark red rash that does not blanch when pressed on, typically known as erythema nodosum, is a common skin manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Given Mrs. Hill's history of SLE, it is likely that her rash is related to her autoimmune condition rather than an exposure to a chemical or an allergic reaction. It is important for her to discuss this new symptom with her healthcare provider to ensure appropriate management and monitoring of her lupus.

Question 4 of 5

On visualization of the penis he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup. What is the most likely diagnosis for this young man's symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of severe testicular pain with a red, tense scrotum, and absent cremasteric reflex on one side is highly concerning for testicular torsion. Testicular torsion is a urologic emergency that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to compromised blood flow to the testicle. The affected testicle can become ischemic and necrotic within hours, necessitating prompt diagnosis and intervention to avoid permanent damage or loss of the testicle.

Question 5 of 5

How often, according to American Cancer Society recommendations, should a woman undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: According to American Cancer Society recommendations, a woman should undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician every year. Regular breast exams help in early detection of breast cancer, which can significantly improve outcomes and treatment options. Annual screenings are crucial in monitoring changes in breast health and detecting any abnormalities at the earliest stage possible. Therefore, it is advised that women follow this guideline to prioritize their breast health and well-being.

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