A 5-year-old girl with altered mental status and CSF findings of high WBCs (80% neutrophils), low sugar, and high protein likely has:

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Pediatric Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 5-year-old girl with altered mental status and CSF findings of high WBCs (80% neutrophils), low sugar, and high protein likely has:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Bacterial Meningitis. In a 5-year-old girl with altered mental status and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) findings of high white blood cells (WBCs) with 80% neutrophils, low sugar, and high protein, the most likely diagnosis is bacterial meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by a high number of neutrophils in the CSF, along with low glucose and high protein levels. This pattern of CSF findings suggests an acute bacterial infection. Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment with antibiotics to prevent serious complications such as brain damage or death. The other options are incorrect because: A) Normal: The clinical presentation and CSF findings described do not indicate a normal state; they suggest an inflammatory process. C) Viral encephalitis: Viral encephalitis typically presents with lymphocytic pleocytosis in the CSF, rather than neutrophil predominance. D) TB Meningitis: While TB Meningitis can present with similar CSF findings, in this case, the high percentage of neutrophils is more suggestive of acute bacterial meningitis. In an educational context, understanding the different etiologies of meningitis and the corresponding CSF findings is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide timely and appropriate care to children with suspected central nervous system infections. Recognizing the specific patterns in CSF analysis can help nurses advocate for prompt diagnostic testing and treatment to improve patient outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

The exact time of appearance of skin elevated temperature in roseola infantum infection is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In roseola infantum infection, also known as sixth disease, the characteristic skin rash typically appears once the fever subsides. This is because the rash is a result of the body's immune response to the virus causing the fever. As the body fights off the infection, the fever eventually decreases, and the rash emerges. Option A) 1st day of fever is incorrect because the rash does not appear at the onset of fever. Option B) 3rd day of fever is incorrect as well, as the rash usually appears after the fever has been present for some time. Option C) 4th day of fever is also incorrect; the rash typically appears after this point. From an educational perspective, understanding the timing of the appearance of the rash in roseola infantum is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients. Recognizing the progression of symptoms can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of the infection. This knowledge helps healthcare professionals provide quality care and education to families about the course of the illness.

Question 3 of 5

An infant with marked cyanotic heart defect with decreased pulmonary vascularity should be treated with:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) Prostaglandin E1. Infants with marked cyanotic heart defects and decreased pulmonary vascularity often have conditions like ductal-dependent congenital heart diseases (CHD) where a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is necessary to maintain systemic blood flow. Prostaglandin E1 helps keep the ductus arteriosus open, allowing for adequate systemic blood flow in these infants. Option A) Epinephrine is used in situations of cardiac arrest or severe hypotension, not specifically for treating cyanotic heart defects. Option C) Dopamine is a medication used to improve cardiac output and blood pressure, but it is not the primary treatment for cyanotic heart defects. Option D) Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used to treat heart failure and certain arrhythmias, but it is not the appropriate treatment for cyanotic heart defects with decreased pulmonary vascularity. Educationally, understanding the importance of prostaglandin E1 in managing ductal-dependent CHD in infants is crucial for pediatric nursing practice. This knowledge ensures timely and appropriate interventions to support these vulnerable patients, highlighting the significance of accurate medication administration in pediatric cardiac care.

Question 4 of 5

Timing of an innocent murmur is usually:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding heart murmurs is crucial for accurate assessment and diagnosis. Innocent murmurs are common in children and are typically benign, occurring due to normal blood flow patterns rather than underlying cardiac pathology. The timing of a murmur refers to when during the cardiac cycle the murmur occurs. The correct answer is A) Ejection systolic. Innocent murmurs are often ejection systolic in timing, meaning they occur during systole when the blood is being ejected from the heart. This type of murmur is typically heard best at the left sternal border and may have a musical or vibratory quality. Option B) Pansystolic murmurs occur throughout systole and are typically associated with conditions like mitral regurgitation or ventricular septal defects, not innocent murmurs in children. Option C) Early diastolic murmurs occur during early diastole when the heart is filling with blood, seen in conditions like aortic regurgitation, not innocent murmurs. Option D) Mid diastolic murmurs occur in mid-diastole and are associated with conditions like mitral stenosis, not innocent murmurs commonly heard in pediatric patients. Educationally, it is important for nursing students to grasp the different types of heart murmurs, their timing, associated conditions, and significance in pediatric patients. Recognizing innocent murmurs helps differentiate them from pathological murmurs, leading to appropriate patient management and referrals to cardiology for further evaluation when necessary. This knowledge enhances the quality of care provided to pediatric populations and contributes to improved patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

An apical mid diastolic rumble is NOT heard in one of the following structural heart diseases:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Large atrial septal defect. An apical mid diastolic rumble is typically associated with mitral stenosis, which occurs due to turbulent blood flow across a stenotic mitral valve during diastole. This rumble is caused by the increased velocity of blood flow and resulting vibrations that can be auscultated at the apex of the heart. Option A is incorrect because an atrial septal defect involves abnormal communication between the atria and does not directly affect the flow of blood across the mitral valve, hence an apical mid diastolic rumble is not typically heard in this condition. Options B, C, and D all involve mitral valve pathology which can lead to the development of an apical mid diastolic rumble due to the turbulent blood flow across the stenotic or incompetent valve. Mitral incompetence and mitral valve stenosis both affect the flow of blood through the mitral valve, leading to the characteristic auscultatory findings associated with these conditions. Aortic rheumatic carditis with mitral valvulitis can also cause turbulent blood flow across the mitral valve leading to the same auscultatory finding. Understanding the characteristic heart sounds associated with different structural heart diseases is crucial in pediatric nursing as it helps in accurate diagnosis and monitoring of these conditions in pediatric patients. Nurses need to be able to differentiate between various heart sounds to provide optimal care and timely interventions for their pediatric patients with cardiac issues.

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