ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain, nausea, and three episodes of bloody emesis. His mother is concerned because she saw him playing near the open medicine cabinet and her prenatal vitamins were opened. What is the most appropriate treatment for the child's overdose?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prenatal vitamins likely caused iron overdose (bloody emesis). Deferoxamine chelates iron, preventing toxicity. Aminocaproic acid treats bleeding. Dimercaprol and Penicillamine target other metals. Succimer (E) is for lead. Deferoxamine is urgent for this child.
Question 2 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium, used for bipolar disorder, is a salt processed by the kidneys, which also regulate sodium. Low sodium levels (e.g., from reduced table salt intake) cause the kidneys to conserve lithium instead, increasing serum levels and risking toxicity—symptoms like tremors, confusion, or seizures. Choice B correctly explains this mechanism: adequate sodium intake (via table salt) prevents lithium retention, maintaining therapeutic levels. Choice A confuses the issue with sea salt, which isn't clinically distinct here. Choice C inaccurately suggests adjusting salt reactively, risking toxicity first. Choice D downplays salt's role compared to hydration, which, while important, doesn't negate sodium's necessity. The nurse must clarify that consistent sodium intake is essential for lithium's safe metabolism, making choice B the most accurate and educational response.
Question 3 of 5
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline requires 2-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect, increasing neurotransmitters gradually. After 2 weeks, persistent depression is expected, so 'It can take several weeks' educates on the timeline, encouraging adherence. Choice B dismisses feelings, risking trust. Choice C assumes failure prematurely. Choice D exaggerates to months, discouraging patience. A provides accurate, supportive guidance, aligning with tricyclic pharmacology, making it the best response.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer heparin to a client. Which laboratory value should the nurse check prior to administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin, an anticoagulant, prolongs clotting via antithrombin, monitored by aPTT to ensure therapeutic range (1.5-2.5 times normal) and prevent bleeding or clotting risks. PT/INR (choices A, C) track warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count matters for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but isn't the primary pre-dose check'baseline and periodic counts suffice. aPTT directly reflects heparin's effect, guiding dosing adjustments, especially in acute settings like DVT or PE. Checking it ensures safety, as excessive anticoagulation causes hemorrhage, while under-dosing fails therapy. This aligns with heparin's rapid action and short half-life, making B the critical lab value to verify before administration.
Question 5 of 5
The following statements concerning renal drug handling are correct:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys filter approximately 130 mL/min of protein-free plasma, which is the glomerular filtration rate in healthy adults.