A 5-month-old boy presented with brief contractions of the neck, trunk, and arm muscles, followed by a phase of sustained muscle contraction lasting less than 2 seconds. His EEG pattern consists of chaotic high-voltage slow waves, spikes, and polyspikes. Of the following, the first-line treatment in this condition is

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Question 1 of 5

A 5-month-old boy presented with brief contractions of the neck, trunk, and arm muscles, followed by a phase of sustained muscle contraction lasting less than 2 seconds. His EEG pattern consists of chaotic high-voltage slow waves, spikes, and polyspikes. Of the following, the first-line treatment in this condition is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: ACTH is first-line for infantile spasms, per AAN, with chaotic EEG (hypsarrhythmia) and brief flexor/extensor spasms. Phenobarbital and valproate are less effective; midazolam acute; ethosuximide absence. ACTHs efficacy in spasms makes A the correct answer.

Question 2 of 5

Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is an immune-mediated peripheral neuropathy and can affect patients of all ages. The diagnosis is usually by

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Nerve conduction velocity diagnosCIDP, per AAN, showing demyelination (slowing, conduction block). Clinical exam supports; genetic for hereditary; MRI spinal; CSF adjunctive. NCVs specificity makes C the correct answer.

Question 3 of 5

The CT scan report of your patient who complained from hemiparesis is as follow: unilateral clefts within the cerebral hemispherthat extend from the cortical surface to the ventricular cavity. Of the following, the MOST likely cause of this description is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Schizencephaly matchunilateral clefts from cortex to ventricle on CT, per neurology, causing hemiparesis from migration defects. Lissencephaly lacks gyri; pachygyria thick gyri; polymicrogyria excessive folds. Cleft specificity makes A the correct answer.

Question 4 of 5

A child presents with acute, focal neurologic deficits (hemiparesis) with visual, speech, and sensory deficits. Radiological imaging is consistent with hemorrhagic stroke (HS). Of the following, the MOST common cause of HS is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is the most common cause of pediatric hemorrhagic stroke, per AHA, from vaso-occlusion and vessel fragility. Heart disease risks embolism; anemia rare; vasculitis inflammatory; dissection traumatic. Sickle prevalence make B the correct answer.

Question 5 of 5

An anxious mother consults you about her healthy looking son who is complaining from rapid, purposeless, involuntary, stereotyped movements that typically involvthe face. Of the following, the MOST likely diagnosis is

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tics are rapid, stereotyped, involuntary facial movements, per DSM-5, common in healthy kids (e.g., Tourette). Myoclonus is jerky; tremor rhythmic; dystonia sustained; athetosis writhing. Tics prevalence makes C the correct answer.

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