A 49-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is treated with spironolactone. She has good blood pressure control and in the last 6 months has shown an improvement in her hirsutism. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

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Endocrine Pharmacology Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 49-year-old woman with a history of hypertension is treated with spironolactone. She has good blood pressure control and in the last 6 months has shown an improvement in her hirsutism. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, also inhibits androgen receptors, reducing hirsutism by decreasing androgen effects on hair follicles.

Question 2 of 5

A 48-year-old postmenopausal woman undergoes a hysterectomy prophylactically because of a strong family history of endometrial cancer. After her procedure, she complained of difficulty moving her bowels. Physical exam revealed decreased bowel sounds in all four quadrants. A white blood cell count showed 9,000 cells per microliter. The physician gives her a drug to stimulate her intestines until normal function resumes. Which of the following is most likely the drug given?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bethanechol, a cholinergic agonist, stimulates GI motility, treating postoperative ileus by enhancing peristalsis.

Question 3 of 5

Regarding the normal function of triiodothyronine and thyroxine in a 19-year-old female who has just finished menses, which of the following statements is true?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Food reduces \T_3 and \T_4 absorption; they are metabolized via conjugation, not primarily P450, and inducers like phenytoin or rifampin increase metabolism.

Question 4 of 5

A 56-year-old woman with diabetes who takes metformin is scheduled to undergo a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast. Her last dose of metformin was this morning. She presents to the imaging center ready for the test. When she tells the technician that she takes metformin, her CT scan is cancelled despite her serum creatinine being 1mg\dL. What is the reason for cancellation of the test?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Metformin is held before contrast due to the risk of lactic acidosis if contrast-induced nephropathy impairs metformin clearance, even with normal creatinine.

Question 5 of 5

A 28-year-old man who is obese is found to have a hemoglobin \A_{1c of 9.5%. He has been unable to adequately control his blood sugar with diet and exercise alone. His physician wishes to prescribe an insulin product to help control his blood sugar level. Which of the following is the longest acting to provide this patient a low, baseline insulin dose that will last throughout the day?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Insulin glargine is the longest-acting basal insulin, providing a steady, 24-hour glucose-lowering effect without peaks.

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