ATI RN
Physical Assessment NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 49-year-old administrative assistant comes to your office for evaluation of dizziness. You elicit the information that the dizziness is a spinning sensation of sudden onset, worse with head position changes. The episodes last a few seconds and then go away, and they are accompanied by intense nausea. She has vomited one time. She denies tinnitus. You perform a physical examination of the head and neck and note that the patient's hearing is intact to Weber and Rinne and that there is nystagmus. Her gait is normal. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation of sudden-onset spinning sensation triggered by head position changes, accompanied by nausea and vomiting without tinnitus, is characteristic of benign positional vertigo (BPV). BPV is caused by displaced otoconia (calcium crystals) within the semicircular canals of the inner ear. These crystals disrupt the normal flow of fluid in the inner ear, leading to false signals being sent to the brain about head movement. This results in brief episodes of vertigo triggered by specific head positions.
Question 2 of 5
A young man is concerned about a hard mass he has just noticed in the midline of his palate. On examination, it is indeed hard and in the midline. There are no mucosal abnormalities associated with this lesion. He is experiencing no other symptoms. What will you tell him is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A hard mass in the midline of the palate with no associated mucosal abnormalities is most likely a torus palatinus. Torus palatinus is a benign bony growth that often occurs in the midline of the hard palate. It is typically asymptomatic and does not require treatment unless it causes issues with function or hygiene. Leukoplakia is a clinical term used to describe a white patch in the mouth that cannot be scrapped off and is associated with a risk of cancer. Thrush (candidiasis) presents as white, creamy patches in the mouth that can be scrapped off and is caused by a yeast infection. Kaposi's sarcoma presents as red or purple patches or nodules in the mouth and is associated with immunocompromised individuals, like those with HIV/AIDS.
Question 3 of 5
Her right carotid pulse is bounding but the left carotid pulse is weak. She is afebrile but her respirations are 24 times a minute. On auscultation her lungs are clear and her cardiac examination is unremarkable. You call EMS and have her taken to the hospital's ER for further evaluation. What disorder of the chest best describes her symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A dissecting aortic aneurysm is the most likely disorder that best describes the symptoms presented. In this condition, the inner layer of the aorta tears and blood can flow between the layers of the aortic wall, causing a number of potential symptoms. A patient with a dissecting aortic aneurysm may present with a difference in pulses between the right and left sides due to decreased blood flow to one side. The bounding pulse on one side and weak pulse on the other are indicative of uneven blood flow distribution. Additionally, a dissecting aortic aneurysm can lead to respiratory symptoms such as increased respiratory rate if there is associated pain or discomfort, although clear lung sounds would not typically be expected with this condition. The condition is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate evaluation and treatment.
Question 4 of 5
Which lung sound possesses the characteristics of being louder and higher in pitch, with a short silence between inspiration and expiration and with expiration being longer than inspiration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The characteristics described - being louder and higher in pitch, with a short silence between inspiration and expiration, and expiration being longer than inspiration - are indicative of the bronchial lung sound. The bronchial sound is typically heard over the trachea area and can be louder and higher-pitched than other lung sounds due to conduction of sounds through the bronchial tree. The short silence between inspiration and expiration is due to the short expiratory phase during which air rushes out quickly, whereas expiration is longer than inspiration in this sound due to the increased airflow velocity during expiration.
Question 5 of 5
You are evaluating a 40-year-old banker for coronary heart disease risk factors. He has a history of hypertension, which is well-controlled on his current medications. He does not smoke; he does 45 minutes of aerobic exercise five times weekly. You are calculating his 10- year coronary heart disease risk. Which of the following conditions is considered to be a coronary heart disease risk equivalent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is considered a coronary heart disease risk equivalent, meaning it confers a similar risk as having a history of coronary heart disease itself. Individuals with PAD have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke. Therefore, when assessing the 10-year coronary heart disease risk of the 40-year-old banker, having peripheral arterial disease would be a crucial factor to consider in addition to other risk factors like hypertension, exercise habits, and smoking history.