ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 48-year-old woman with obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to her primary care physician for evaluation. She states that her symptoms have worsened during the last 6 months and desires treatment. She has begun on sertraline. Which of the following precautions must be exercised by the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, risks suicidal tendencies , especially early in treatment for OCD. Hepatic carcinoma , volume overload , and antibiotic potentiation aren't concerns. FDA warnings highlight this risk, necessitating monitoring in this worsening case.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with schizophrenia. The patients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conventional antipsychotics like haloperidol have anticholinergic effects, including dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. Urinary retention is a medical emergency if severe, risking bladder damage or infection, requiring immediate physician reporting. Acute dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect, not anticholinergic, though urgent. Severe headache could indicate various issues but isn't a typical anticholinergic effect. Hypertension isn't directly linked to anticholinergic action (hypotension is more common). The nurse prioritizes urinary retention due to its potential for rapid complications, aligning with anticholinergic pharmacology, making choice D the most critical to report.
Question 3 of 5
A patient was prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for the treatment of depression and anxiety. The patient's spouse calls the clinic and reports the patient is increasingly moody and seems 'disconnected with life.' What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sertraline carries a suicide risk warning, especially early on. Moodiness and disconnection suggest potential ideation, requiring urgent clinic assessment for safety. Diphenhydramine masks symptoms. Holding medication risks withdrawal. Doubling the dose could worsen effects. B ensures immediate evaluation, making it the best response.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse administers atenolol (Tenormin) to a client with hypertension. Which finding would prompt the nurse to hold the dose and notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, lowers blood pressure and heart rate by blocking sympathetic stimulation. A heart rate of 52 bpm is bradycardic (below 60 bpm), a threshold for holding beta-blockers due to risk of inadequate perfusion, especially in hypertension where cardiac output matters. Holding and notifying the physician prevents harm, allowing reassessment. BP of 130/80 is controlled, not urgent. Respiratory rate of 18 and temperature of 98.6°F are normal. Atenolol's selectivity for beta-1 receptors makes bradycardia a key adverse effect, requiring vigilance. This action aligns with nursing protocols for beta-blockers, prioritizing cardiovascular stability, making B the finding warranting immediate intervention.
Question 5 of 5
The following drugs commonly cause hepatotoxicity:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Paracetamol overdose can cause severe hepatotoxicity due to the accumulation of toxic metabolites.