ATI RN
ATI Intro to Pharmacology Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 48-year-old woman with obsessive-compulsive disorder presents to her primary care physician for evaluation. She states that her symptoms have worsened during the last 6 months and desires treatment. She has begun on sertraline. Which of the following precautions must be exercised by the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sertraline, an SSRI, risks suicidal tendencies , especially early in treatment for OCD. Hepatic carcinoma , volume overload , and antibiotic potentiation aren't concerns. FDA warnings highlight this risk, necessitating monitoring in this worsening case.
Question 2 of 5
Which one of the following CNS receptors is directly coupled to an ion channel so that the effects of its activation do not involve second messenger systems?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nicotinic acetylcholine (N ACh) receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, directly opening to allow sodium and potassium flux upon acetylcholine binding, producing rapid effects without second messengers—key in neuromuscular transmission. Alpha-adrenergic (a NE) receptors couple to G-proteins, using second messengers like IP3 or cAMP. D2A dopamine receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase via Gi proteins, involving cAMP. Mu opioid receptors (µ) also use Gi proteins, reducing cAMP and opening potassium channels indirectly. 5HT2 serotonin receptors activate phospholipase C, generating IP3. The nicotinic receptor's direct ion channel linkage distinguishes it, enabling fast synaptic responses without the delay of intracellular signaling cascades.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is managing the care of a group of patients with schizophrenia. The patients are receiving conventional antipsychotic medications. When assessing for anticholinergic side effects, which would the nurse immediately report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Conventional antipsychotics like haloperidol have anticholinergic effects, including dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention. Urinary retention is a medical emergency if severe, risking bladder damage or infection, requiring immediate physician reporting. Acute dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect, not anticholinergic, though urgent. Severe headache could indicate various issues but isn't a typical anticholinergic effect. Hypertension isn't directly linked to anticholinergic action (hypotension is more common). The nurse prioritizes urinary retention due to its potential for rapid complications, aligning with anticholinergic pharmacology, making choice D the most critical to report.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse enters a patient’s room to find that his heart rate is 120, his blood pressure is 70/50, and he has red blotching of his face and neck. Vancomycin is running intravenous piggyback. The nurse believes that this patient is experiencing a severe adverse effect called red man syndrome. What action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Red man syndrome is a hypersensitivity reaction to vancomycin, characterized by flushing, rash, hypotension, and tachycardia. The nurse should immediately stop the infusion to prevent further reaction and call the health care provider for further instructions. Reducing the infusion rate may help in mild cases, but in this severe case, stopping the infusion is the priority. Encouraging fluids is not appropriate for managing this acute reaction. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a different, more severe condition and is not indicated by these symptoms.
Question 5 of 5
What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication commonly used in the treatment of seizures, including tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures, complex partial seizures, and seizures occurring during neurosurgery. It works by stabilizing the excitable cell membranes in the brain, thereby reducing abnormal electrical activity that can lead to seizures. Phenytoin is not used as an antidiabetic, mood stabilizer, or antianxiety agent.