ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 48-year-old woman with 2-year history of rheumatoid arthritis has not had sufficient relief with methotrexate alone. Her physician prescribes a biologic TNF-α inhibitor that consists of a recombinant human IgG fused to TNF-α receptor. Which of the following drugs is this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) progression despite methotrexate warrants a TNF-α inhibitor. The description-recombinant human IgG fused to TNF-α receptor-points to Etanercept . Adalimumab and Golimumab are monoclonal antibodies against TNF-α, not receptor fusions. Certolizumab is a PEGylated Fab fragment, not IgG-based. Etanercept , a fusion protein, binds TNF-α, neutralizing it, and matches the question's structure. Infliximab (E) is a chimeric antibody. Etanercept's unique receptor-IgG design distinguishes it, effectively reducing RA inflammation by sequestering TNF-α, a key cytokine, making it the precise answer here.
Question 2 of 5
A 29-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is able to purchase phencyclidine from another user of this substance. He takes a 'triple dose' of the substance. Which of the following effects is likely to be observed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 3 of 5
A 30-year-old male patient is brought to the ER with the following symptoms attributed to a drug overdose: HR and BP, mydriasis, behavioral excitation, aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations. Of the following drugs, which one is most likely to be responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amphetamine overdose causes sympathomimetic toxicity: elevated heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) from catecholamine release, mydriasis via alpha-adrenergic stimulation, and CNS excitation—aggressiveness, paranoia, and hallucinations—due to dopamine and norepinephrine excess. Ethanol overdose typically depresses CNS, causing sedation, not excitation, despite possible tachycardia. Fentanyl, an opioid, leads to respiratory depression and miosis, opposite to these symptoms. Flunitrazepam, a benzodiazepine, sedates and lowers BP. Marijuana might cause paranoia but not this full sympathomimetic profile. Amphetamine's stimulant properties directly explain the cardiovascular, pupillary, and psychiatric symptoms, making it the most likely culprit in this acute presentation.
Question 4 of 5
The physician has prescribed haloperidol (Haldol) for the patient with schizophrenia. What is the priority patient outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a conventional antipsychotic, treats schizophrenia by reducing positive symptoms like hallucinations, but its efficacy depends on adherence. The priority outcome is medication compliance, as relapse is common without consistent use, undermining all other goals. Adequate fluids and fiber mitigate side effects (e.g., constipation) but are secondary to ensuring treatment continuity. Decreased hallucinations is a desired effect, not an outcome ensuring it happens. Restlessness indicates side effects (e.g., akathisia), not a goal. Compliance is foundational, as schizophrenia's chronic nature requires long-term management, making choice B the nurse's primary focus for successful therapy.
Question 5 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium's renal clearance depends on sodium levels; low sodium causes lithium retention, risking toxicity (e.g., tremors, confusion). 'You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium' explains this, ensuring safe levels. Choice A confuses with sea salt. Choice C risks toxicity by reacting late. Choice D downplays sodium's role. B educates accurately, making it the best response.