ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 48-year-old patient has been prescribed trihexyphenidyl for her Parkinson’s disease. Which adverse reaction to this drug can be close-related?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Dryness of mouth Rationale: 1. Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. 2. Anticholinergic drugs inhibit the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased secretions. 3. Dryness of mouth (xerostomia) is a common side effect of anticholinergic medications. 4. Excessive salivation, bradycardia, and constipation are not typically associated with anticholinergic drugs, making them incorrect choices.
Question 2 of 5
Which initial intervention is most appropriate for a patient who has a new onset of chest pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, notifying the health care provider. This is the most appropriate initial intervention because chest pain can be a symptom of a serious medical condition like a heart attack. The health care provider needs to be informed immediately to assess the situation and provide appropriate treatment. Reassessing the patient (A) may delay crucial medical intervention. Administering pain medication (C) without knowing the cause of chest pain can be dangerous. Calling radiology for a chest x-ray (D) is not the initial step in managing new onset chest pain.
Question 3 of 5
An adult is brought in by ambulance after a motor vehicle accident. He is unconscious, on a backboard with his neck immobilized. He is bleeding profusely from a large gash on his right thigh. What is the first action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check his airway. Ensuring a patent airway is the priority in trauma care to maintain oxygenation and ventilation. With the patient unconscious and bleeding profusely, airway obstruction or compromise is a critical concern. By checking the airway first, the nurse can quickly assess and address any immediate threats to the patient's breathing. Stopping the bleeding (choice A) can be addressed once the airway is secured. Taking vital signs (choice B) and finding out what happened from eyewitnesses (choice D) can be important but are secondary to ensuring the patient's airway is clear and unobstructed.
Question 4 of 5
For a patient receiving furosemide, the nurse evaluates the medication as being effective if which of the following effects occurs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output increased. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, thus helping to reduce fluid volume in the body. This effect is crucial in managing conditions like heart failure and edema. Increased urine output indicates that the medication is working as intended. Choice B: Heart rate increased is incorrect as furosemide does not directly affect heart rate. Choice C: Serum potassium decreased is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, but this is not the primary indicator of its effectiveness. Choice D: Pulse pressure increased is incorrect as furosemide does not typically impact pulse pressure.
Question 5 of 5
A client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most common metastasis site for cancer cells?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. The liver is a common site for metastasis because it receives blood from various organs, making it a prime location for cancer cells to travel and establish secondary tumors. Additionally, the liver has a rich blood supply and provides a favorable environment for cancer cells to thrive. In contrast, B (Reproductive tract) and C (Colon) are not as common sites for metastasis compared to the liver. Choice D (White blood cells) is incorrect as metastasis involves the spread of cancer cells to distant organs, not within the blood cells themselves.
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