A 48-year-old patient arrives at the clinic to discuss her perimenopausal symptoms. She states that her last menstrual period was 8 months ago, and before that, her periods had been irregular. What is the most important nursing advice to give this patient?

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Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System NCLEX Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 48-year-old patient arrives at the clinic to discuss her perimenopausal symptoms. She states that her last menstrual period was 8 months ago, and before that, her periods had been irregular. What is the most important nursing advice to give this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be using some form of contraception to avoid pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Perimenopause does not guarantee the cessation of ovulation, so pregnancy is still possible. 2. Irregular periods increase the difficulty of predicting ovulation. 3. Pregnancy at an older age carries increased risks for both the mother and the baby. 4. Contraception is essential until menopause is confirmed. Incorrect Choices: A: Hormone therapy addresses menopausal symptoms, not contraception. C: Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan is for bone density, not pregnancy prevention. D: Incomplete option, not relevant to the scenario.

Question 2 of 5

A patient is to receive insulin before breakfast, and

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Regular insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before breakfast as it has an onset of action of about 30 minutes to 1 hour, making it suitable for pre-meal administration. NPH insulin (choice B) has a slower onset and is typically given before dinner. Lispro insulin (choice C) is a rapid-acting insulin that is also given before meals but has a quicker onset than Regular insulin. Choice A is incorrect because Regular insulin does not need to wait for the breakfast tray to arrive, unlike some other insulins that require food intake.

Question 3 of 5

A patient complains about a burning sensation and pain when urinating. Which urinary analgesic does the nurse suspect will be ordered?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Phenazopyridine. This urinary analgesic is commonly used to relieve pain, burning sensation, and discomfort associated with urinary tract infections or other urinary conditions. It works by numbing the urinary tract lining. Tolterodine (A) and Oxybutynin (B) are anticholinergic medications used to treat overactive bladder, not urinary pain. Bethanechol (C) is a cholinergic medication used to increase bladder muscle tone, not for urinary pain relief.

Question 4 of 5

Which drug has GI disturbances as a major side effect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Voglibose. Voglibose is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor commonly used in diabetes management. Its major side effect is GI disturbances due to its mechanism of action in delaying carbohydrate absorption in the intestines. This can lead to flatulence, bloating, and diarrhea. Metformin (choice A) commonly causes GI upset but is not its major side effect. Rosiglitazone (choice B) is associated with weight gain and edema, not GI disturbances. Repaglinide (choice D) can cause hypoglycemia and weight gain, but not major GI disturbances.

Question 5 of 5

Concerning question 7, why do you think this drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The drug is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the risk of congenital cretinism in the baby. This is because the drug may interfere with the normal development of the baby's thyroid gland, leading to hypothyroidism and intellectual disability. Choice A is incorrect as liver damage is not specifically linked to this drug in pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because severe hypertension is not a common side effect of the drug in this context. Choice D is incorrect as it combines two incorrect statements.

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